ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Paper 3 (CTFL v4.0, 40 Questions with Answers)

Sample paper 3 is the final full-length practice exam in this course. Its 40 questions are different from papers 1 and 2 and follow the official chapter and K-level split. If you score 32 or more here and on an official ISTQB sample exam, you are ready to book.

ISTQB CTFL › Sample paper 3 (40 questions) Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

How to use this paper
  • Time: 60 minutes (75 minutes with the non-native language extension).
  • Pass mark: 26 out of 40 (65%). Aim for 32 or more.
  • Split: chapter 1: 8 · chapter 2: 6 · chapter 3: 4 · chapter 4: 11 · chapter 5: 9 · chapter 6: 2 · K1: 8, K2: 24, K3: 8.
  • Written by SQA Tools; these are not official ISTQB questions.

Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing

Question 1 FL-1.5.2 (K1)

The whole team approach is a practice that comes from which development method?

  1. A. Waterfall
  2. B. Kanban
  3. C. Extreme Programming (XP)
  4. D. The V-model
Show answer

Answer: C. Extreme Programming (XP)

The syllabus states that the whole team approach comes from Extreme Programming.

Question 2 FL-1.2.2 (K1)

How are test results used in quality assurance?

  1. A. As feedback on how well the development and test processes are performing
  2. B. To fix individual defects in the code
  3. C. To decide the price of the product
  4. D. They are not used in QA at all
Show answer

Answer: A. As feedback on how well the development and test processes are performing

Both testing and QA use test results: testing to fix defects, QA to get feedback on how well the processes are working.

Question 3 FL-1.1.2 (K2)

After a developer fixes a defect, who should preferably perform the confirmation testing?

  1. A. The developer who fixed the defect
  2. B. The product owner
  3. C. Any automated tool, never a person
  4. D. The person who performed the test that originally found the failure
Show answer

Answer: D. The person who performed the test that originally found the failure

The syllabus states that confirmation testing is preferably done by the same person who performed the initial test.

Question 4 FL-1.2.1 (K2)

Why might testing be required on a medical device software project, beyond finding defects?

  1. A. To decide the marketing strategy
  2. B. To comply with regulatory standards and legal requirements
  3. C. To replace the development team’s code reviews
  4. D. To reduce the number of user stories
Show answer

Answer: B. To comply with regulatory standards and legal requirements

Testing may be required to meet contractual or legal requirements or to comply with regulatory standards, which is common for medical devices.

Question 5 FL-1.2.3 (K2)

A satellite’s software fails because radiation changes bits in its firmware memory. Which statement is correct?

  1. A. The failure was caused by a human error in the code
  2. B. The failure is a root cause
  3. C. Failures can also be caused by environmental conditions, as in this case
  4. D. This cannot be a failure because no defect was coded
Show answer

Answer: C. Failures can also be caused by environmental conditions, as in this case

Errors and defects are not the only causes of failures. Environmental conditions such as radiation or electromagnetic fields can also cause them.

Question 6 FL-1.3.1 (K2)

A form has 12 fields, each accepting 10 different values. A manager asks the team to test every combination before release. Which principle explains why this is not feasible?

  1. A. Exhaustive testing is impossible
  2. B. Tests wear out
  3. C. Defects cluster together
  4. D. Testing is context dependent
Show answer

Answer: A. Exhaustive testing is impossible

There are 10¹² combinations. Testing everything is not feasible except in trivial cases, so test techniques, prioritization and risk should focus the effort.

Question 7 FL-1.4.1 (K2)

Which task belongs to test completion?

  1. A. Defining and prioritising test conditions
  2. B. Comparing actual results with expected results
  3. C. Building and verifying the test environment
  4. D. Archiving testware that may be useful in future, and creating change requests for unresolved defects
Show answer

Answer: D. Archiving testware that may be useful in future, and creating change requests for unresolved defects

Test completion archives or hands over reusable testware, creates change requests for open defects, shuts down the environment, gathers lessons learned and writes the completion report.

Question 8 FL-1.5.3 (K2)

Which arrangement gives the HIGHEST level of test independence?

  1. A. The author tests their own code
  2. B. Testers from outside the organisation test the work product
  3. C. A peer from the same team tests the code
  4. D. Testers from another team inside the organisation test it
Show answer

Answer: B. Testers from outside the organisation test the work product

Independence rises from the author (none), to peers in the same team (some), to testers outside the team (high), to testers outside the organisation (very high).

Chapter 2: Testing Throughout the SDLC

Question 9 FL-2.1.3 (K1)

Which statement is true for TDD, ATDD and BDD?

  1. A. Tests are written after the code is complete
  2. B. Tests are defined before the code is written, applying early testing and shift left
  3. C. They can only be used in sequential development models
  4. D. They do not produce tests that can be automated
Show answer

Answer: B. Tests are defined before the code is written, applying early testing and shift left

In all three test-first approaches, tests are defined before the code, which implements early testing and follows shift left. They support iterative development, and tests may persist as automated tests.

Question 10 FL-2.1.2 (K1)

When should test analysis and design for a given test level begin?

  1. A. After the test level’s code is released to production
  2. B. Only when the test environment is ready
  3. C. After all other test levels are complete
  4. D. During the corresponding development phase of the SDLC
Show answer

Answer: D. During the corresponding development phase of the SDLC

Starting test analysis and design during the corresponding development phase follows the principle of early testing.

Question 11 FL-2.1.1 (K2)

In iterative and incremental development where increments are delivered frequently, what does testing need most?

  1. A. Fast feedback and extensive regression testing
  2. B. One large test phase at the end of the project
  3. C. No static testing
  4. D. Testing only at the acceptance level
Show answer

Answer: A. Fast feedback and extensive regression testing

Each iteration may involve static and dynamic testing at all test levels, and frequent delivery requires fast feedback and extensive regression testing.

Question 12 FL-2.2.1 (K2)

Before go-live, a bank’s operations team tests backup, restore and disaster recovery procedures. Which form of acceptance testing is this?

  1. A. User acceptance testing
  2. B. Contractual acceptance testing
  3. C. Operational acceptance testing
  4. D. Beta testing
Show answer

Answer: C. Operational acceptance testing

Operational acceptance testing checks the system’s readiness for operation, such as backup and restore and disaster recovery, by those who will run it.

Question 13 FL-2.2.2 (K2)

Which of the following is a non-functional quality characteristic listed in the syllabus (based on ISO/IEC 25010)?

  1. A. Functional correctness
  2. B. Portability (also known as flexibility)
  3. C. Functional completeness
  4. D. Decision coverage
Show answer

Answer: B. Portability (also known as flexibility)

The non-functional characteristics listed are performance efficiency, compatibility, usability, reliability, security, maintainability, portability and safety. Functional correctness and completeness are functional.

Question 14 FL-2.3.1 (K2)

Which factor typically determines the scope of maintenance testing?

  1. A. The number of testers on the team
  2. B. The programming language used
  3. C. The colour scheme of the user interface
  4. D. The degree of risk of the change
Show answer

Answer: D. The degree of risk of the change

The scope of maintenance testing typically depends on the degree of risk of the change, the size of the existing system and the size of the change.

Chapter 3: Static Testing

Question 15 FL-3.1.1 (K1)

What do work products need in order to be examined by static analysis tools?

  1. A. A structure against which they can be checked, such as models, code or text with a formal syntax
  2. B. An executable build
  3. C. A signed contract
  4. D. A completed test execution schedule
Show answer

Answer: A. A structure against which they can be checked, such as models, code or text with a formal syntax

Any readable work product can be reviewed, but static analysis needs a structure a tool can check against.

Question 16 FL-3.2.3 (K1)

Which review role decides who will be involved and organises when and where the review takes place?

  1. A. Manager
  2. B. Moderator
  3. C. Review leader
  4. D. Scribe
Show answer

Answer: C. Review leader

The review leader takes overall responsibility for the review, including who takes part and when and where it happens. The manager decides what is reviewed and provides resources.

Question 17 FL-3.1.3 (K2)

Which defect is typically easier or cheaper to find through static testing than through dynamic testing?

  1. A. A slow response under peak load
  2. B. A crash that appears after hours of continuous use
  3. C. A wrong result that only appears in production data
  4. D. A mismatch in the number, type or order of parameters in an interface specification
Show answer

Answer: D. A mismatch in the number, type or order of parameters in an interface specification

Incorrect interface specifications are listed among defects that static testing finds more easily or cheaply. The others need the software to run.

Question 18 FL-3.2.4 (K2)

Which statement about inspections is correct?

  1. A. They are led by the author
  2. B. The author cannot act as the review leader or the scribe, and metrics are collected to improve the process
  3. C. They do not follow a defined process
  4. D. Their only objective is to educate the reviewers
Show answer

Answer: B. The author cannot act as the review leader or the scribe, and metrics are collected to improve the process

Inspections are the most formal review type: they follow the complete generic process, collect metrics, and do not allow the author to be the review leader or scribe.

Chapter 4: Test Analysis and Design

Question 19 FL-4.1.1 (K2)

For which family of test techniques do test cases remain useful when the implementation changes but the required behaviour stays the same?

  1. A. Black-box test techniques
  2. B. White-box test techniques
  3. C. Code-coverage-based techniques
  4. D. None of them
Show answer

Answer: A. Black-box test techniques

Black-box techniques are based on the specified behaviour, independent of the implementation, so the tests stay useful if only the implementation changes.

Question 20 FL-4.2.1 (K3)

A username must be 6 to 12 characters long and contain letters only. A tester identifies five partitions: length below 6, length 6 to 12, length above 12, letters only, and contains non-letters. The tests are “abc”, “abcdefgh” and “abcd1234”. What equivalence partitioning coverage do they achieve?

  1. A. 60%
  2. B. 100%
  3. C. 80%
  4. D. 40%
Show answer

Answer: C. 80%

“abc” covers length below 6 and letters only; “abcdefgh” covers length 6 to 12; “abcd1234” covers length 6 to 12 and non-letters. Length above 12 is not covered, so coverage is 4 ÷ 5 = 80%.

Question 21 FL-4.2.2 (K3)

Parcel weights are entered in steps of 0.1 kg. 0.0 kg or less is invalid, 0.1 to 5.0 kg is standard, 5.1 to 20.0 kg is heavy, and above 20.0 kg is rejected. How many test values are needed for 100% 2-value boundary value coverage?

  1. A. 4
  2. B. 6
  3. C. 8
  4. D. 12
Show answer

Answer: B. 6

The boundary values are 0.0, 0.1, 5.0, 5.1, 20.0 and 20.1 (the outer ends of the lowest and highest partitions are unbounded). Each closest neighbour is itself one of these values, so 6 values give 100% coverage.

Question 22 FL-4.2.3 (K3)

A discount rule has two conditions: “customer is a senior citizen” and “customer is a student”. A customer cannot be both, so that combination is infeasible. How many test cases are needed for 100% decision table coverage of the full table?

  1. A. 4
  2. B. 2
  3. C. 1
  4. D. 3
Show answer

Answer: D. 3

Two Boolean conditions give 4 columns. Removing the infeasible column (senior and student both true) leaves 3 feasible columns, each needing a test.

Question 23 FL-4.2.4 (K3)

A state table has 3 states and 3 events, and 5 of its cells are valid transitions. Two test cases exercise all 5 valid transitions and attempt 2 invalid transitions. What all transitions coverage do they achieve?

  1. A. About 77.8%
  2. B. About 55.6%
  3. C. 100%
  4. D. About 71.4%
Show answer

Answer: A. About 77.8%

The table has 3 × 3 = 9 transitions (5 valid, 4 invalid). The tests cover 5 + 2 = 7 of 9, which is about 77.8%.

Question 24 FL-4.3.2 (K2)

Which of the following is a conditional branch?

  1. A. Straight-line code between two statements
  2. B. The decision to exit or continue a loop
  3. C. A comment in the source code
  4. D. A function’s name
Show answer

Answer: B. The decision to exit or continue a loop

Conditional branches are decision outcomes, such as the true or false result of an IF, a switch case, or exiting or continuing a loop. Straight-line code is an unconditional branch.

Question 25 FL-4.3.3 (K2)

Why do white-box coverage measures add value beyond black-box testing alone?

  1. A. They make black-box testing unnecessary
  2. B. They detect requirements that were never implemented
  3. C. They give an objective measure of code coverage and show where more tests are needed
  4. D. They remove the need for test design
Show answer

Answer: C. They give an objective measure of code coverage and show where more tests are needed

Black-box testing alone gives no measure of code coverage. White-box measures provide an objective measure and the information needed to add tests and increase confidence.

Question 26 FL-4.4.1 (K2)

What are fault attacks?

  1. A. A structured way to perform error guessing, using a list of possible errors, defects and failures
  2. B. Security attacks run by external hackers
  3. C. A type of static analysis tool
  4. D. A review type led by the author
Show answer

Answer: A. A structured way to perform error guessing, using a list of possible errors, defects and failures

Fault attacks implement error guessing: the tester builds or obtains a list of likely errors, defects and failures and designs tests to expose them.

Question 27 FL-4.4.3 (K2)

Why should checklists used in checklist-based testing be updated regularly?

  1. A. Because checklists must contain every possible test
  2. B. Because longer checklists are always better
  3. C. Because checklists must include items that tools can check automatically
  4. D. Because items lose effectiveness as developers learn to avoid those errors, and new high-severity defects may need new entries
Show answer

Answer: D. Because items lose effectiveness as developers learn to avoid those errors, and new high-severity defects may need new entries

Checklist entries wear out as developers learn, and new important defects should be added, so checklists are updated from defect analysis while avoiding excessive length.

Question 28 FL-4.5.1 (K2)

In the “3 C’s” of user stories, what is the Confirmation?

  1. A. The card or electronic board entry
  2. B. The acceptance criteria
  3. C. The conversation about how the software will be used
  4. D. The developer’s code review
Show answer

Answer: B. The acceptance criteria

Card is the medium, Conversation explains how the software will be used, and Confirmation is the acceptance criteria.

Question 29 FL-4.5.3 (K3)

User story: “As a shopper, I want free delivery on orders of ₹499 or more.” Acceptance criteria: (1) orders of ₹499 or more get free delivery; (2) orders below ₹499 pay a ₹49 delivery fee. Which pair of ATDD test cases covers both criteria without duplication?

  1. A. A ₹600 order gets free delivery; a ₹700 order gets free delivery
  2. B. A ₹100 order pays ₹49; a ₹200 order pays ₹49
  3. C. A ₹499 order gets free delivery; a ₹498 order pays ₹49
  4. D. A ₹499 order on the website gets free delivery; a ₹499 order on Android gets free delivery
Show answer

Answer: C. A ₹499 order gets free delivery; a ₹498 order pays ₹49

Each acceptance criterion needs a test, and no two tests should describe the same characteristic. Option C covers both criteria (here at the boundary). A, B and D each test only one criterion twice.

Chapter 5: Managing the Test Activities

Question 30 FL-5.2.1 (K1)

Which two factors determine the risk level?

  1. A. Test coverage and defect density
  2. B. Budget and schedule
  3. C. Number of testers and number of test cases
  4. D. Risk likelihood and risk impact
Show answer

Answer: D. Risk likelihood and risk impact

Risk level is expressed by the likelihood of the risk occurring and its impact (harm) if it occurs.

Question 31 FL-5.1.3 (K2)

When can running out of time or budget be an acceptable reason to stop testing?

  1. A. When stakeholders have reviewed and accepted the risk of going live without further testing
  2. B. Never; all exit criteria must always be met
  3. C. Only if no defects have been found
  4. D. Only in sequential development models
Show answer

Answer: A. When stakeholders have reviewed and accepted the risk of going live without further testing

Running out of time or budget can be a valid exit criterion, even if other exit criteria are not met, provided stakeholders have reviewed and accepted the risk.

Question 32 FL-5.1.4 (K3)

Three-point estimates for a test task are: optimistic a = 6, most likely m = 12 and pessimistic b = 30 hours. What are the estimate E and the standard deviation SD?

  1. A. E = 12, SD = 4
  2. B. E = 16, SD = 6
  3. C. E = 14, SD = 4
  4. D. E = 14, SD = 24
Show answer

Answer: C. E = 14, SD = 4

E = (6 + 4 × 12 + 30) / 6 = 84 / 6 = 14 hours. SD = (30 − 6) / 6 = 4 hours. So the estimate is 14 ± 4 hours.

Question 33 FL-5.1.5 (K3)

Requirement priorities are: R-A high, R-B medium, R-C low. Test T1 covers R-C, T2 covers R-A, T3 covers R-B, and T4 covers R-A but needs data created by T1. Using requirements-based prioritization, which order is correct?

  1. A. T2, T4, T1, T3
  2. B. T2, T1, T4, T3
  3. C. T2, T3, T1, T4
  4. D. T1, T2, T3, T4
Show answer

Answer: B. T2, T1, T4, T3

Tests for the high-priority requirement (T2, T4) go first, but T4 depends on T1, so T1 must run before T4. T3 (medium) follows. A breaks the dependency, and C delays a high-priority test unnecessarily.

Question 34 FL-5.1.7 (K2)

Which tests belong to testing quadrant Q2 (business facing, supporting the team)?

  1. A. Component tests run in CI
  2. B. Smoke tests and performance tests
  3. C. Exploratory and usability testing
  4. D. Functional tests, examples, user story tests and API tests
Show answer

Answer: D. Functional tests, examples, user story tests and API tests

Q2 contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing and simulations, which check acceptance criteria.

Question 35 FL-5.2.2 (K2)

Which is a possible consequence when a PRODUCT risk occurs?

  1. A. The project schedule is delayed
  2. B. User dissatisfaction and loss of reputation
  3. C. The budget is overrun
  4. D. The project scope is reduced
Show answer

Answer: B. User dissatisfaction and loss of reputation

Product risks affect product quality and can lead to user dissatisfaction, loss of revenue, trust or reputation, and more. Schedule, budget and scope impacts describe project risks.

Question 36 FL-5.3.2 (K2)

What is the main purpose of a test progress report?

  1. A. To support ongoing test control with enough information to adjust the schedule, resources or plan
  2. B. To archive testware at the end of the project
  3. C. To replace the test plan
  4. D. To list lessons learned after the release
Show answer

Answer: A. To support ongoing test control with enough information to adjust the schedule, resources or plan

Progress reports support ongoing test control. Archiving and lessons learned belong to test completion.

Question 37 FL-5.4.1 (K2)

How does configuration management make it possible to reproduce earlier test results?

  1. A. By deleting old versions of test items
  2. B. By assigning priorities to defects
  3. C. By recording changed configuration items for each baseline, so a previous baseline can be restored
  4. D. By running all regression tests automatically
Show answer

Answer: C. By recording changed configuration items for each baseline, so a previous baseline can be restored

CM records changes when a new baseline is created, so the team can revert to a previous baseline and reproduce earlier results.

Question 38 FL-5.5.1 (K3)

The company name is misspelled on the home page of a banking website. Nothing else is affected. Which classification is most appropriate in the defect report?

  1. A. High severity, low priority
  2. B. High severity, high priority
  3. C. Low severity, low priority
  4. D. Low severity, high priority
Show answer

Answer: D. Low severity, high priority

Severity is the impact on stakeholders or requirements, which is low here because nothing functional breaks. Priority is how soon to fix it, which is high because it is very visible and harms the brand.

Chapter 6: Test Tools

Question 39 FL-6.1.1 (K2)

The team uses containers so that every tester gets an identical test environment. Which type of tool is this?

  1. A. Test design and implementation tool
  2. B. Static testing tool
  3. C. Tool supporting scalability and deployment standardisation
  4. D. Test management tool
Show answer

Answer: C. Tool supporting scalability and deployment standardisation

Virtual machines and containerisation tools are listed as tools supporting scalability and deployment standardisation.

Question 40 FL-6.2.1 (K1)

A team wants to automate a one-off exploratory usability check of a new screen. Which risk of test automation does this illustrate?

  1. A. Using a test tool when manual testing is more appropriate
  2. B. Reduced test execution time
  3. C. Easier access to information about testing
  4. D. Prevention of simple human errors
Show answer

Answer: A. Using a test tool when manual testing is more appropriate

Using a tool where manual testing is more appropriate is a listed risk. The other options are listed benefits.

How did you do?

Score What it means Next step
32 to 40 Exam-ready Take one official ISTQB sample exam (A, B, C or D on istqb.org) under timed conditions, then book your exam
26 to 31 Pass, but no margin Review the explanations, re-read the matching syllabus sections and retry paper 1
Below 26 Not yet Follow the 4-week study plan from the start

Answer key

Count one point per correct answer. 26 or more out of 40 is a pass (65%). Aim for 32 or more before you book the real exam.

QAnswerLearning objectiveQAnswerLearning objective
1CFL-1.5.2 (K1)21BFL-4.2.2 (K3)
2AFL-1.2.2 (K1)22DFL-4.2.3 (K3)
3DFL-1.1.2 (K2)23AFL-4.2.4 (K3)
4BFL-1.2.1 (K2)24BFL-4.3.2 (K2)
5CFL-1.2.3 (K2)25CFL-4.3.3 (K2)
6AFL-1.3.1 (K2)26AFL-4.4.1 (K2)
7DFL-1.4.1 (K2)27DFL-4.4.3 (K2)
8BFL-1.5.3 (K2)28BFL-4.5.1 (K2)
9BFL-2.1.3 (K1)29CFL-4.5.3 (K3)
10DFL-2.1.2 (K1)30DFL-5.2.1 (K1)
11AFL-2.1.1 (K2)31AFL-5.1.3 (K2)
12CFL-2.2.1 (K2)32CFL-5.1.4 (K3)
13BFL-2.2.2 (K2)33BFL-5.1.5 (K3)
14DFL-2.3.1 (K2)34DFL-5.1.7 (K2)
15AFL-3.1.1 (K1)35BFL-5.2.2 (K2)
16CFL-3.2.3 (K1)36AFL-5.3.2 (K2)
17DFL-3.1.3 (K2)37CFL-5.4.1 (K2)
18BFL-3.2.4 (K2)38DFL-5.5.1 (K3)
19AFL-4.1.1 (K2)39CFL-6.1.1 (K2)
20CFL-4.2.1 (K3)40AFL-6.2.1 (K1)

This paper: 40 questions (8 × K1, 24 × K2, 8 × K3).

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.

ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Paper 2 (CTFL v4.0, 40 Questions with Answers)

Sample paper 2 is a second full-length practice exam for ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0). All 40 questions are new and follow the official chapter and K-level split. Take it under exam conditions: 60 minutes, closed book, then check every explanation.

ISTQB CTFL › Sample paper 2 (40 questions) Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

How to use this paper
  • Time: 60 minutes (75 minutes with the non-native language extension).
  • Pass mark: 26 out of 40 (65%). Aim for 32 or more.
  • Split: chapter 1: 8 · chapter 2: 6 · chapter 3: 4 · chapter 4: 11 · chapter 5: 9 · chapter 6: 2 · K1: 8, K2: 24, K3: 8.
  • Written by SQA Tools; these are not official ISTQB questions.

Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing

Question 1 FL-1.2.2 (K1)

Which statement about quality assurance (QA) is correct?

  1. A. QA is product-oriented and focuses on finding defects
  2. B. QA is process-oriented and preventive, and it is everyone’s responsibility on the project
  3. C. QA is the same as testing
  4. D. QA is performed only by the test manager
Show answer

Answer: B. QA is process-oriented and preventive, and it is everyone’s responsibility on the project

QA focuses on implementing and improving processes to prevent defects, and everyone on the project is responsible for it. Testing is the product-oriented, corrective activity.

Question 2 FL-1.1.1 (K1)

Which of the following is NOT a typical test objective?

  1. A. Evaluating work products such as requirements and code
  2. B. Providing information so stakeholders can make decisions
  3. C. Ensuring the required coverage of a test object
  4. D. Removing the defects that caused failures
Show answer

Answer: D. Removing the defects that caused failures

Removing defects is debugging, which is not a testing activity. The other options are listed test objectives.

Question 3 FL-1.2.1 (K2)

Which of the following is an example of testing contributing to project success?

  1. A. Testers write the production code for urgent features
  2. B. Testers decide the product’s selling price
  3. C. Testers bring the users’ perspective into the project, representing users indirectly
  4. D. Testers remove defects directly from the source code
Show answer

Answer: C. Testers bring the users’ perspective into the project, representing users indirectly

Testing gives users indirect representation in development, which is usually cheaper and more practical than involving many real users.

Question 4 FL-1.3.1 (K2)

An app passes every test against its specification, but users reject it because it does not support how they actually work. Which principle does this illustrate?

  1. A. Absence-of-defects fallacy
  2. B. Defects cluster together
  3. C. Tests wear out
  4. D. Exhaustive testing is impossible
Show answer

Answer: A. Absence-of-defects fallacy

Verifying the specification is not enough: a system without known defects can still fail to meet users’ needs, so validation is also needed.

Question 5 FL-1.4.2 (K2)

Which statement about the test process in context is correct?

  1. A. The same test process should be used unchanged for every project
  2. B. Factors such as business-domain criticality and project constraints influence the test strategy and the level of detail of testware
  3. C. Context affects only test execution, not test planning
  4. D. The available tools never influence how testing is done
Show answer

Answer: B. Factors such as business-domain criticality and project constraints influence the test strategy and the level of detail of testware

Stakeholders, team, business domain, technical factors, constraints, organisation, SDLC and tools all shape the strategy, techniques, automation, coverage, testware detail and reporting.

Question 6 FL-1.4.4 (K2)

What does traceability between test results and risks make possible?

  1. A. Evaluating the level of residual risk in the test object
  2. B. Removing the need for test planning
  3. C. Automatically fixing the riskiest defects
  4. D. Guaranteeing that no risks remain
Show answer

Answer: A. Evaluating the level of residual risk in the test object

Tracing test results to risks shows how much risk has been addressed and how much residual risk remains.

Question 7 FL-1.4.5 (K2)

In Agile software development, who may handle test management tasks?

  1. A. Only a dedicated test manager outside the team
  2. B. Some tasks may be handled by the Agile team itself, while tasks spanning several teams may be done by test managers outside the team
  3. C. Only the product owner
  4. D. Nobody, because Agile teams do not need test management
Show answer

Answer: B. Some tasks may be handled by the Agile team itself, while tasks spanning several teams may be done by test managers outside the team

The test management role varies with context: an Agile team can take on some test management tasks, while cross-team or organisation-wide tasks may sit with test managers outside the team.

Question 8 FL-1.5.1 (K2)

A tester reports a defect factually, focusing on the product’s behaviour and its impact rather than on the developer who wrote the code. Which skill does this show?

  1. A. Domain knowledge
  2. B. Technical knowledge
  3. C. Good communication skills
  4. D. Thoroughness
Show answer

Answer: C. Good communication skills

Testers often bring bad news, so communicating defects constructively, without blaming the author, is a key communication skill.

Chapter 2: Testing Throughout the SDLC

Question 9 FL-2.1.3 (K1)

Which approach derives tests from acceptance criteria as part of the system design process, before the feature is developed?

  1. A. Test-driven development (TDD)
  2. B. Exploratory testing
  3. C. Maintenance testing
  4. D. Acceptance test-driven development (ATDD)
Show answer

Answer: D. Acceptance test-driven development (ATDD)

ATDD derives tests from acceptance criteria during system design, and the part of the application is then developed to satisfy them.

Question 10 FL-2.1.2 (K1)

Why should different test levels have specific and different test objectives?

  1. A. So testing is appropriately comprehensive while avoiding redundancy
  2. B. So each level can be skipped if another level passes
  3. C. So that all levels can use the same test cases
  4. D. So that only one level needs exit criteria
Show answer

Answer: A. So testing is appropriately comprehensive while avoiding redundancy

Different objectives per level allow thorough testing without repeating the same checks at every level.

Question 11 FL-2.1.1 (K2)

In Agile software development, which practices are typically favoured?

  1. A. Detailed documentation before any coding starts
  2. B. No regression testing, because the code changes often
  3. C. Lightweight documentation and extensive test automation for regression testing
  4. D. Only scripted manual tests designed months in advance
Show answer

Answer: C. Lightweight documentation and extensive test automation for regression testing

Agile expects change, so it favours lightweight work-product documentation and extensive automation to make regression testing easier.

Question 12 FL-2.1.4 (K2)

Which is a challenge of DevOps from a testing perspective?

  1. A. Faster feedback on code quality
  2. B. The DevOps delivery pipeline must be defined and established
  3. C. Better visibility of non-functional characteristics
  4. D. Less repetitive manual testing
Show answer

Answer: B. The DevOps delivery pipeline must be defined and established

Setting up the pipeline, maintaining CI/CD tools and building test automation are listed challenges. The other options are benefits.

Question 13 FL-2.1.6 (K2)

Which is a typical benefit of retrospectives for testing?

  1. A. They replace the test completion report
  2. B. They remove the need for regression testing
  3. C. They guarantee that no defects reach production
  4. D. They improve the quality of the test basis, as gaps in requirements can be addressed
Show answer

Answer: D. They improve the quality of the test basis, as gaps in requirements can be addressed

Listed benefits include better test effectiveness, better testware, team bonding, better test basis quality and better cooperation between development and testing.

Question 14 FL-2.2.2 (K2)

The main objective of which test type is to cover the underlying structure of the test object to an acceptable level?

  1. A. White-box testing
  2. B. Black-box testing
  3. C. Functional testing
  4. D. Acceptance testing
Show answer

Answer: A. White-box testing

White-box testing derives tests from the implementation or internal structure and aims to cover that structure to an acceptable level.

Chapter 3: Static Testing

Question 15 FL-3.1.1 (K1)

Which work products can be examined by static testing?

  1. A. Only source code
  2. B. Only requirement specifications
  3. C. Almost any work product, for example test plans, contracts and product backlog items
  4. D. Only executable software
Show answer

Answer: C. Almost any work product, for example test plans, contracts and product backlog items

Almost any work product that can be read and understood can be reviewed, and static analysis can check structured work products.

Question 16 FL-3.2.1 (K1)

Which is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

  1. A. It removes the need for acceptance testing
  2. B. It helps prevent misunderstandings about requirements
  3. C. It guarantees on-time delivery
  4. D. It replaces risk analysis
Show answer

Answer: B. It helps prevent misunderstandings about requirements

Frequent feedback prevents misunderstandings, makes sure requirement changes are understood earlier, and helps the team focus on the most valuable features.

Question 17 FL-3.2.2 (K2)

In which review activity are decisions made about the status, ownership and required actions for each anomaly, typically in a review meeting?

  1. A. Planning
  2. B. Review initiation
  3. C. Individual review
  4. D. Communication and analysis
Show answer

Answer: D. Communication and analysis

During communication and analysis, anomalies are discussed and decisions are made about each one, usually in a review meeting.

Question 18 FL-3.1.2 (K2)

Why are overall project costs usually lower when reviews are performed, even though reviews take effort?

  1. A. Less time and effort is spent fixing defects later in the project
  2. B. Reviews replace the need for dynamic testing
  3. C. Reviews remove the need for test planning
  4. D. Reviews make developers work faster
Show answer

Answer: A. Less time and effort is spent fixing defects later in the project

Reviews find defects early, so less time and effort is spent fixing them later, which usually more than pays for the review effort.

Chapter 4: Test Analysis and Design

Question 19 FL-4.1.1 (K2)

When can test cases based on white-box test techniques be created?

  1. A. Before any requirements exist
  2. B. Only after the design or implementation of the test object exists
  3. C. Only during acceptance testing
  4. D. Only by business representatives
Show answer

Answer: B. Only after the design or implementation of the test object exists

White-box test cases depend on the internal structure, so they can only be created once the design or implementation exists.

Question 20 FL-4.2.1 (K3)

An app has a coupon type {FLAT, PERCENT, CASHBACK} and a sales channel {web, Android, iOS, kiosk}. What is the minimum number of test cases for 100% Each Choice coverage?

  1. A. 3
  2. B. 7
  3. C. 4
  4. D. 12
Show answer

Answer: C. 4

Each partition of each set must be exercised at least once. Four tests can cover the four channels while also covering the three coupon types, so the minimum equals the size of the largest set: 4.

Question 21 FL-4.2.2 (K3)

An alarm triggers when the temperature is greater than 40 (whole degrees). Using 3-value boundary value analysis, which values must be tested?

  1. A. 40, 41
  2. B. 39, 40, 41, 42
  3. C. 39, 40, 41
  4. D. 40, 41, 42
Show answer

Answer: B. 39, 40, 41, 42

The partitions are ≤40 (no alarm) and ≥41 (alarm), so the boundary values are 40 and 41. With both neighbours: 40 → 39, 40, 41 and 41 → 40, 41, 42. Without duplicates: 39, 40, 41, 42.

Question 22 FL-4.2.3 (K3)

An extended-entry decision table has 12 columns. Two of them describe infeasible combinations. The tests exercise 5 of the feasible columns. What is the decision table coverage?

  1. A. 41.7%
  2. B. 60%
  3. C. 83.3%
  4. D. 50%
Show answer

Answer: D. 50%

Coverage items are the feasible columns: 12 − 2 = 10. Coverage = 5 ÷ 10 = 50%.

Question 23 FL-4.2.4 (K3)

A traffic-light controller has the states Red, Green, Yellow and Flashing, and seven valid transitions: Red→Green, Green→Yellow and Yellow→Red (timer); Red→Flashing, Green→Flashing and Yellow→Flashing (fault); Flashing→Red (reset). One test starts in Red and applies: timer, timer, timer, fault, reset. What valid transitions coverage does it achieve?

  1. A. About 71%
  2. B. 100%
  3. C. About 57%
  4. D. About 83%
Show answer

Answer: A. About 71%

The test exercises Red→Green, Green→Yellow, Yellow→Red, Red→Flashing and Flashing→Red: 5 of the 7 valid transitions, which is about 71%.

Question 24 FL-4.3.2 (K2)

A function contains a single IF-THEN-ELSE decision and no loops. What is the minimum number of test cases for 100% branch coverage?

  1. A. 1
  2. B. 3
  3. C. 2
  4. D. 4
Show answer

Answer: C. 2

Both outcomes of the decision (the THEN and the ELSE branch) must be exercised, which needs at least 2 test cases.

Question 25 FL-4.4.1 (K2)

Which item would typically appear in a fault-attack list for an input field?

  1. A. The project budget for testing
  2. B. Correct input is not accepted, or a required parameter is missing
  3. C. The names of the developers on the team
  4. D. The release date of the product
Show answer

Answer: B. Correct input is not accepted, or a required parameter is missing

Error guessing anticipates errors, defects and failures; input-related examples include correct input not being accepted and parameters being wrong or missing.

Question 26 FL-4.4.2 (K2)

In session-based exploratory testing, what guides the tester during the session?

  1. A. A complete set of scripted test cases
  2. B. The source code
  3. C. The defect reports from the last release
  4. D. A test charter containing test objectives
Show answer

Answer: D. A test charter containing test objectives

A time-boxed session is guided by a test charter with test objectives, and is usually followed by a debriefing.

Question 27 FL-4.5.1 (K2)

In INVEST, what does “T” stand for, and what might it mean if a stakeholder cannot say how to test a user story?

  1. A. Testable; the story may not be clear enough or not valuable to them
  2. B. Traceable; the story has no requirements
  3. C. Timely; the story is late
  4. D. Technical; only developers can test it
Show answer

Answer: A. Testable; the story may not be clear enough or not valuable to them

Good stories are Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small and Testable. If a stakeholder cannot test a story, it may be unclear, not valuable to them, or they may need help with testing.

Question 28 FL-4.5.2 (K2)

Which of the following is a use of acceptance criteria?

  1. A. To replace the user story card
  2. B. To allow accurate planning and estimation
  3. C. To record the developers’ working hours
  4. D. To measure code coverage
Show answer

Answer: B. To allow accurate planning and estimation

Acceptance criteria define scope, reach consensus, describe positive and negative scenarios, serve as the basis for acceptance testing and allow accurate planning and estimation.

Question 29 FL-4.5.3 (K3)

User story: “As a customer, I want to download my invoice as a PDF from the order page.” Using ATDD, which test case should NOT be written for this story?

  1. A. Download the PDF from the order page and check that the totals match the order
  2. B. Download the PDF for an order with 50 items and check every item is listed
  3. C. Check that invoices are emailed to the customer automatically every month
  4. D. Download the PDF for an order paid with a coupon and check the discount is shown
Show answer

Answer: C. Check that invoices are emailed to the customer automatically every month

ATDD test cases must cover the story’s characteristics and must not go beyond the story. Monthly emailing is a different feature.

Chapter 5: Managing the Test Activities

Question 30 FL-5.3.1 (K1)

Defect detection percentage belongs to which category of test metrics?

  1. A. Defect metrics
  2. B. Cost metrics
  3. C. Project progress metrics
  4. D. Coverage metrics
Show answer

Answer: A. Defect metrics

Defect metrics include the number and priority of defects found and fixed, defect density and defect detection percentage.

Question 31 FL-5.1.1 (K2)

Which is a purpose of a test plan?

  1. A. To record the actual results of each test run
  2. B. To replace the defect management process
  3. C. To show that testing will follow the test policy and test strategy, or explain why it deviates
  4. D. To list every line of code that was executed
Show answer

Answer: C. To show that testing will follow the test policy and test strategy, or explain why it deviates

A test plan documents the means and schedule for the test objectives, helps meet agreed criteria, supports communication, and shows adherence to (or deviation from) the test policy and strategy.

Question 32 FL-5.1.4 (K3)

Test effort in the last four iterations was 24, 30, 27 and 31 person-hours. Using extrapolation based on the average, what is the estimate for the next iteration?

  1. A. 27 person-hours
  2. B. 28 person-hours
  3. C. 29 person-hours
  4. D. 31 person-hours
Show answer

Answer: B. 28 person-hours

(24 + 30 + 27 + 31) / 4 = 112 / 4 = 28 person-hours.

Question 33 FL-5.1.5 (K3)

Tests have these risk levels: T1 = 6, T2 = 9, T3 = 4, T4 = 9. T4 can only run after T3. Which execution order follows risk-based prioritization while respecting the dependency?

  1. A. T2, T4, T3, T1
  2. B. T1, T2, T3, T4
  3. C. T3, T1, T2, T4
  4. D. T2, T3, T4, T1
Show answer

Answer: D. T2, T3, T4, T1

The highest risks (T2 and T4) should run first, but T4 depends on T3, so T3 must run before T4. T1 (risk 6) follows. Option A breaks the dependency.

Question 34 FL-5.2.4 (K2)

A team decides to buy insurance to cover a possible failure instead of testing more. Which risk response is this?

  1. A. Risk transfer
  2. B. Risk mitigation by testing
  3. C. Risk monitoring
  4. D. Risk identification
Show answer

Answer: A. Risk transfer

Transferring the consequences to another party is risk transfer, one of the response options alongside mitigation, acceptance and contingency plans.

Question 35 FL-5.3.3 (K2)

A test team is spread across India and Canada with little working-hours overlap. Which approach to communicating test status is most appropriate?

  1. A. Only spoken updates in daily stand-ups
  2. B. No communication until the end of the release
  3. C. More formal communication, such as written reports, online documentation and dashboards
  4. D. Updates only through informal hallway conversations
Show answer

Answer: C. More formal communication, such as written reports, online documentation and dashboards

More formal communication suits distributed teams when face-to-face communication is not always possible because of distance or time differences.

Question 36 FL-5.4.1 (K2)

What happens when a configuration item is approved for testing?

  1. A. It can be changed freely by anyone
  2. B. It becomes a baseline that can only be changed through formal change control
  3. C. It is deleted after the test run
  4. D. It no longer needs a version number
Show answer

Answer: B. It becomes a baseline that can only be changed through formal change control

An approved configuration item becomes a baseline. Changes go through formal change control, and previous baselines can be restored to reproduce results.

Question 37 FL-5.2.3 (K2)

When should product risk analysis ideally begin?

  1. A. After system testing is complete
  2. B. Only after the first production failure
  3. C. During the test completion activity
  4. D. Early in the SDLC
Show answer

Answer: D. Early in the SDLC

Product risk analysis should begin early, so that its results can shape test scope, levels, types, techniques, coverage, effort and priorities.

Question 38 FL-5.5.1 (K3)

Which is the best title for a defect report?

  1. A. “Checkout bug!!!”
  2. B. “Doesn’t work”
  3. C. “Coupon SAVE10 applied twice when the payment page is refreshed”
  4. D. “Developer made a mistake in the coupon code”
Show answer

Answer: C. “Coupon SAVE10 applied twice when the payment page is refreshed”

A good title is a short, specific summary of the anomaly. Vague titles do not help, and blaming a person is not constructive.

Chapter 6: Test Tools

Question 39 FL-6.1.1 (K2)

A tool links requirements, test cases and defects, and reports on their status. Which type of tool is it?

  1. A. Static testing tool
  2. B. Non-functional testing tool
  3. C. Collaboration tool
  4. D. Test management tool
Show answer

Answer: D. Test management tool

Test management tools make the test process more efficient by managing the SDLC, requirements, tests, defects and configuration.

Question 40 FL-6.2.1 (K1)

Which of the following is a potential benefit of test automation?

  1. A. More time for testers to design new, deeper and more effective tests
  2. B. No need for any maintenance of test scripts
  3. C. Removing the need for human critical thinking
  4. D. Independence from tool vendors
Show answer

Answer: A. More time for testers to design new, deeper and more effective tests

Freeing testers to design better tests is a listed benefit. Script maintenance, over-reliance on tools and vendor dependency are listed risks.

How did you do?

Score What it means Next step
32 to 40 Exam-ready Try sample paper 3 and an official ISTQB sample exam, then book
26 to 31 Pass, but no margin Re-read the syllabus sections for the questions you missed
Below 26 Not yet Work through the chapter notes again and follow the study plan

Answer key

Count one point per correct answer. 26 or more out of 40 is a pass (65%). Aim for 32 or more before you book the real exam.

QAnswerLearning objectiveQAnswerLearning objective
1BFL-1.2.2 (K1)21BFL-4.2.2 (K3)
2DFL-1.1.1 (K1)22DFL-4.2.3 (K3)
3CFL-1.2.1 (K2)23AFL-4.2.4 (K3)
4AFL-1.3.1 (K2)24CFL-4.3.2 (K2)
5BFL-1.4.2 (K2)25BFL-4.4.1 (K2)
6AFL-1.4.4 (K2)26DFL-4.4.2 (K2)
7BFL-1.4.5 (K2)27AFL-4.5.1 (K2)
8CFL-1.5.1 (K2)28BFL-4.5.2 (K2)
9DFL-2.1.3 (K1)29CFL-4.5.3 (K3)
10AFL-2.1.2 (K1)30AFL-5.3.1 (K1)
11CFL-2.1.1 (K2)31CFL-5.1.1 (K2)
12BFL-2.1.4 (K2)32BFL-5.1.4 (K3)
13DFL-2.1.6 (K2)33DFL-5.1.5 (K3)
14AFL-2.2.2 (K2)34AFL-5.2.4 (K2)
15CFL-3.1.1 (K1)35CFL-5.3.3 (K2)
16BFL-3.2.1 (K1)36BFL-5.4.1 (K2)
17DFL-3.2.2 (K2)37DFL-5.2.3 (K2)
18AFL-3.1.2 (K2)38CFL-5.5.1 (K3)
19BFL-4.1.1 (K2)39DFL-6.1.1 (K2)
20CFL-4.2.1 (K3)40AFL-6.2.1 (K1)

This paper: 40 questions (8 × K1, 24 × K2, 8 × K3).

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.

ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Paper 1 (CTFL v4.0, 40 Questions with Answers)

This is a full-length practice paper for the ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) exam. It has 40 original questions in exactly the same chapter and K-level split as the real exam. Set a 60-minute timer, answer every question, then open the answers to check your reasoning.

ISTQB CTFL › Sample paper 1 (40 questions) Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

How to use this paper
  • Time: 60 minutes (75 minutes if you will take the real exam in a non-native language).
  • Pass mark: 26 out of 40 (65%). Aim for 32 or more before booking.
  • Rules: closed book. Do not open the answers until you have finished.
  • Split: chapter 1: 8 · chapter 2: 6 · chapter 3: 4 · chapter 4: 11 · chapter 5: 9 · chapter 6: 2 · K1: 8, K2: 24, K3: 8.
  • These questions are written by SQA Tools. They are not official ISTQB questions. Also practise with the official sample exams on istqb.org.

Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing

Question 1 FL-1.1.1 (K1)

Which of the following is a typical test objective?

  1. A. Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled
  2. B. Fixing the defects found during component testing
  3. C. Guaranteeing that the software contains no defects
  4. D. Writing the source code for new features
Show answer

Answer: A. Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

Verifying that specified requirements are fulfilled is a listed test objective. Fixing defects is debugging, testing cannot guarantee the absence of defects, and writing code is development.

Question 2 FL-1.2.3 (K2)

Under time pressure, a product owner writes an acceptance criterion with the wrong currency. A developer implements it, and customers in production see prices in USD instead of INR. What is the defect?

  1. A. The time pressure on the product owner
  2. B. The product owner’s mistake while writing
  3. C. The wrong currency in the acceptance criterion (and later in the code)
  4. D. Customers seeing prices in USD
Show answer

Answer: C. The wrong currency in the acceptance criterion (and later in the code)

Time pressure is the root cause, the mistake is the error, the wrong currency in the work products is the defect, and what customers observe is the failure.

Question 3 FL-1.3.1 (K2)

After 300 test cases pass, a manager announces that the release is defect-free. Which testing principle does this statement ignore?

  1. A. Defects cluster together
  2. B. Testing shows the presence, not the absence, of defects
  3. C. Tests wear out
  4. D. Early testing saves time and money
Show answer

Answer: B. Testing shows the presence, not the absence, of defects

Testing can show that defects are present but can never prove that none remain, however many tests pass.

Question 4 FL-1.1.2 (K2)

Which statement about testing and debugging is correct?

  1. A. Debugging is a test activity normally done by testers
  2. B. Testing can trigger failures, while debugging finds, analyses and removes their causes
  3. C. Debugging must reproduce and diagnose defects found in reviews
  4. D. Confirmation testing is part of debugging
Show answer

Answer: B. Testing can trigger failures, while debugging finds, analyses and removes their causes

Testing and debugging are separate. Defects found by static testing need no reproduction or diagnosis, and confirmation testing is a test activity that follows debugging.

Question 5 FL-1.4.1 (K2)

In which test activity is the test environment built and verified to be set up correctly?

  1. A. Test planning
  2. B. Test analysis
  3. C. Test design
  4. D. Test implementation
Show answer

Answer: D. Test implementation

Test design defines the test environment requirements; test implementation builds the environment and verifies it, along with creating test data and scripts.

Question 6 FL-1.4.3 (K2)

Which work products are typically created during test design?

  1. A. Test logs and defect reports
  2. B. Risk register and test schedule
  3. C. Test cases, test charters, coverage items and test data requirements
  4. D. Test completion report and lessons learned
Show answer

Answer: C. Test cases, test charters, coverage items and test data requirements

Test design produces prioritised test cases, test charters, coverage items, and test data and environment requirements. Logs come from execution, the risk register from planning, and the completion report from test completion.

Question 7 FL-1.5.2 (K1)

Which is an advantage of the whole team approach?

  1. A. Improved communication and collaboration within the team
  2. B. Testers work separately to stay independent of developers
  3. C. Only testers are responsible for quality
  4. D. It is always required for safety-critical systems
Show answer

Answer: A. Improved communication and collaboration within the team

The whole team approach improves team dynamics, communication and collaboration. Everyone is responsible for quality, and safety-critical systems may instead need high independence.

Question 8 FL-1.5.3 (K2)

Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?

  1. A. Developers may lose their sense of responsibility for quality
  2. B. Independent testers may be seen as a bottleneck
  3. C. Independent testers may be isolated from the development team
  4. D. Independent testers are likely to recognise different kinds of failures because of their different backgrounds
Show answer

Answer: D. Independent testers are likely to recognise different kinds of failures because of their different backgrounds

Different perspectives and biases help independent testers find different defects. The other options are listed drawbacks.

Chapter 2: Testing Throughout the SDLC

Question 9 FL-2.1.3 (K1)

In which approach are tests written first, then code is written to pass them, and then both are refactored?

  1. A. Test-driven development (TDD)
  2. B. Behaviour-driven development (BDD)
  3. C. Exploratory testing
  4. D. Maintenance testing
Show answer

Answer: A. Test-driven development (TDD)

TDD directs coding through test cases: write the test, write the code to satisfy it, then refactor tests and code.

Question 10 FL-2.1.2 (K1)

Which good testing practice applies to every software development lifecycle?

  1. A. Dynamic testing starts only after all code is complete
  2. B. All test levels share the same test objectives
  3. C. Testers review work products as soon as drafts are available
  4. D. Test analysis begins after the product is released
Show answer

Answer: C. Testers review work products as soon as drafts are available

Reviewing drafts early supports shift left. Each test level has different objectives, and test analysis and design start during the matching development phase.

Question 11 FL-2.1.5 (K2)

Which statement about shift left is correct?

  1. A. It means testing in later phases can be skipped
  2. B. It may need more effort and cost early but is expected to save effort and cost later
  3. C. It applies only to sequential development models
  4. D. It means that only developers perform testing
Show answer

Answer: B. It may need more effort and cost early but is expected to save effort and cost later

Shift left moves testing earlier and may cost more early on, but saves more later. It does not mean later testing is neglected.

Question 12 FL-2.2.1 (K2)

Developers test that the newly built login component passes the correct user ID to the user-profile component. Which test level is this?

  1. A. System testing
  2. B. Acceptance testing
  3. C. Component testing
  4. D. Component integration testing
Show answer

Answer: D. Component integration testing

Component integration testing focuses on interfaces and interactions between components.

Question 13 FL-2.2.3 (K2)

After a defect fix, a tester reruns the test that originally failed, and it passes. The team then reruns a suite of tests on unchanged areas of the system. How are these two activities named?

  1. A. The first is confirmation testing; the second is regression testing
  2. B. The first is regression testing; the second is confirmation testing
  3. C. Both are confirmation testing
  4. D. Both are regression testing
Show answer

Answer: A. The first is confirmation testing; the second is regression testing

Rerunning the failed test confirms the fix (confirmation testing). Checking unchanged areas for side effects is regression testing.

Question 14 FL-2.3.1 (K2)

Which of the following is a trigger for maintenance testing?

  1. A. Writing the first user stories for a new product
  2. B. Component testing of a new feature before its first release
  3. C. Migrating the operational system to a new cloud platform
  4. D. Holding a specification workshop for a new story
Show answer

Answer: C. Migrating the operational system to a new cloud platform

Upgrades and migrations of the operational environment are maintenance triggers. The others happen before the system is in operation.

Chapter 3: Static Testing

Question 15 FL-3.2.3 (K1)

In a review, who collates anomalies from the reviewers and records decisions made in the review meeting?

  1. A. Moderator
  2. B. Scribe
  3. C. Review leader
  4. D. Author
Show answer

Answer: B. Scribe

The scribe (recorder) collates anomalies and records review information such as decisions and new anomalies.

Question 16 FL-3.2.5 (K1)

Which factor contributes to a successful review?

  1. A. Reviewing a 200-page document in a single session
  2. B. Using the review to evaluate the author’s performance
  3. C. Skipping training because reviews are simple
  4. D. Giving participants adequate time to prepare
Show answer

Answer: D. Giving participants adequate time to prepare

Adequate preparation time is a success factor. Reviews should cover small chunks, evaluating participants must never be an objective, and participants need training.

Question 17 FL-3.1.3 (K2)

Which statement describes a difference between static testing and dynamic testing?

  1. A. Static testing can be applied to non-executable work products; dynamic testing cannot
  2. B. Static testing causes failures; dynamic testing finds defects directly
  3. C. Only dynamic testing can find defects in requirements
  4. D. Static testing can measure performance efficiency
Show answer

Answer: A. Static testing can be applied to non-executable work products; dynamic testing cannot

Static testing works on non-executable work products such as requirements. It finds defects directly, and performance efficiency needs execution.

Question 18 FL-3.2.4 (K2)

A review is led by a moderator, uses technically qualified reviewers, and its main goal is to reach a decision on a technical problem. Which review type is this?

  1. A. Informal review
  2. B. Walkthrough
  3. C. Technical review
  4. D. Inspection
Show answer

Answer: C. Technical review

A technical review is led by a moderator with technically qualified reviewers, aiming to gain consensus and make decisions on a technical problem.

Chapter 4: Test Analysis and Design

Question 19 FL-4.1.1 (K2)

Which family of test techniques relies mainly on the tester’s knowledge, and can find defects that the other techniques miss?

  1. A. Black-box test techniques
  2. B. White-box test techniques
  3. C. Collaboration-based approaches
  4. D. Experience-based test techniques
Show answer

Answer: D. Experience-based test techniques

Experience-based techniques use the tester’s knowledge and experience and complement black-box and white-box techniques.

Question 20 FL-4.2.1 (K3)

A car insurance quote uses the driver’s age in whole years: under 18 is rejected, 18 to 25 pays a high premium, 26 to 60 pays the standard premium, 61 to 75 pays a senior premium, and over 75 needs a medical check. Tests use the ages 17, 30, 65 and 80. What equivalence partitioning coverage do they achieve?

  1. A. 60%
  2. B. 80%
  3. C. 100%
  4. D. 40%
Show answer

Answer: B. 80%

There are 5 partitions: under 18, 18 to 25, 26 to 60, 61 to 75, and over 75. The tests cover 4 of them (18 to 25 is missing), so coverage is 4 ÷ 5 = 80%.

Question 21 FL-4.2.2 (K3)

A discount applies to orders from ₹500 to ₹2,000 inclusive (whole rupees). Using 2-value boundary value analysis, which set of values achieves 100% coverage?

  1. A. 500, 2000
  2. B. 499, 500, 501, 1999, 2000, 2001
  3. C. 499, 500, 2000, 2001
  4. D. 0, 499, 2001, 9999
Show answer

Answer: C. 499, 500, 2000, 2001

The boundary values are 499 (top of the lower partition), 500, 2000 and 2001 (bottom of the upper partition). 2-value BVA needs each boundary and its closest neighbour in the adjacent partition, which is exactly these four values.

Question 22 FL-4.2.3 (K3)

A minimised decision table for opening a bank account has four rules. R1: ID invalid → reject (other conditions irrelevant). R2: ID valid, age under 18 → reject. R3: ID valid, 18 or over, no address proof → reject. R4: ID valid, 18 or over, address proof → open account. The tests are T1 (invalid ID, age 30, with proof), T2 (valid ID, age 16, with proof) and T3 (valid ID, age 16, without proof). What decision table coverage do they achieve?

  1. A. 50%
  2. B. 25%
  3. C. 75%
  4. D. 100%
Show answer

Answer: A. 50%

T1 exercises R1. T2 and T3 both exercise R2 because address proof is irrelevant once the age is under 18. Two of the four rules are covered, so coverage is 50%.

Question 23 FL-4.2.4 (K3)

A media player has the states Stopped, Playing and Paused, with five valid transitions: Stopped -play→ Playing, Playing -pause→ Paused, Paused -play→ Playing, Playing -stop→ Stopped and Paused -stop→ Stopped. Every test case starts in Stopped. What is the minimum number of test cases for 100% valid transitions coverage?

  1. A. 5
  2. B. 3
  3. C. 2
  4. D. 1
Show answer

Answer: D. 1

One sequence covers all five: play, pause, play, stop, play, pause, stop. A test case can, and usually will, cover several transitions.

Question 24 FL-4.3.1 (K2)

What does 100% statement coverage guarantee?

  1. A. All decision outcomes have been exercised
  2. B. All defects in the code have been found
  3. C. Every executable statement has been executed at least once
  4. D. All paths through the code have been tested
Show answer

Answer: C. Every executable statement has been executed at least once

Statement coverage only guarantees that every executable statement ran. It does not guarantee all branches, all paths or finding every defect.

Question 25 FL-4.3.3 (K2)

Which is a strength of white-box testing?

  1. A. It reliably finds requirements that were never implemented
  2. B. It considers the entire implementation, so it can find defects even when the specification is vague or outdated
  3. C. It can be used without any access to the code or design
  4. D. It can only be applied after the system is released
Show answer

Answer: B. It considers the entire implementation, so it can find defects even when the specification is vague or outdated

White-box testing uses the whole implementation, which helps when specifications are poor. Its weakness is that it cannot find defects of omission.

Question 26 FL-4.4.2 (K2)

In which situation is exploratory testing especially useful?

  1. A. Complete formal specifications and plenty of time are available
  2. B. A regulator requires detailed, pre-scripted test documentation
  3. C. Specifications are few or inadequate and there is significant time pressure
  4. D. Only automated regression testing is needed
Show answer

Answer: C. Specifications are few or inadequate and there is significant time pressure

Exploratory testing is useful when specifications are poor or there is time pressure, and as a complement to more formal techniques.

Question 27 FL-4.4.3 (K2)

Which item is most appropriate for a checklist used in checklist-based testing?

  1. A. “Is the software good?”
  2. B. “Has 80% code coverage been reached?”
  3. C. “Do all unit tests pass in the CI pipeline?”
  4. D. “Is every mandatory field marked with an asterisk?”
Show answer

Answer: D. “Is every mandatory field marked with an asterisk?”

Checklist items should be specific questions that can be checked separately and directly. A is too general, B is better as an exit criterion, and C can be checked automatically.

Question 28 FL-4.5.2 (K2)

Which acceptance criterion is written in a rule-oriented format?

  1. A. Given a registered user, When they enter a wrong password three times, Then the account is locked
  2. B. • Password length is 8 to 16 characters • It must contain at least one digit • It must not equal the username
  3. C. As a user, I want to reset my password, so that I can regain access
  4. D. Explore the login page with unusual inputs for 30 minutes
Show answer

Answer: B. • Password length is 8 to 16 characters • It must contain at least one digit • It must not equal the username

A bullet-point verification list is rule-oriented. A is scenario-oriented (Given/When/Then), C is a user story and D is a test charter.

Question 29 FL-4.5.3 (K3)

User story: “As a member, I want to reset my password with an emailed link that is valid for 30 minutes.” Using ATDD, which test case should the team write FIRST?

  1. A. Request a reset, open the link within 30 minutes, set a new password, and log in successfully with it
  2. B. Open the link after 31 minutes and check that it is rejected
  3. C. Send 1,000 reset requests per minute and measure the response time
  4. D. Reset the password by SMS instead of email
Show answer

Answer: A. Request a reset, open the link within 30 minutes, set a new password, and log in successfully with it

ATDD starts with positive tests, then negative tests (B), then non-functional characteristics (C). Option D goes beyond the story.

Chapter 5: Managing the Test Activities

Question 30 FL-5.1.3 (K2)

Which of the following is an exit criterion?

  1. A. The test environment is available
  2. B. Testable requirements are available
  3. C. All smoke tests have passed on the new build
  4. D. All planned tests have been executed and no critical defects remain open
Show answer

Answer: D. All planned tests have been executed and no critical defects remain open

Exit criteria define what must be achieved to finish, such as executed tests and unresolved defects. A, B and C are typical entry criteria.

Question 31 FL-5.1.4 (K3)

Using three-point estimation with a = 10, m = 14 and b = 24 person-days, what is the estimated test effort E?

  1. A. 14 person-days
  2. B. 16 person-days
  3. C. 15 person-days
  4. D. 48 person-days
Show answer

Answer: C. 15 person-days

E = (10 + 4 × 14 + 24) / 6 = 90 / 6 = 15 person-days.

Question 32 FL-5.1.5 (K3)

The team uses additional coverage prioritization. Test T1 covers requirements R1, R2 and R3; T2 covers R3 and R4; T3 covers R1 and R2; T4 covers R4 and R5. Which test is executed second?

  1. A. T4
  2. B. T2
  3. C. T3
  4. D. It cannot be determined
Show answer

Answer: A. T4

T1 runs first because it covers the most (3). Next is the test adding the most new coverage: T4 adds R4 and R5 (2), T2 adds only R4 (1) and T3 adds nothing.

Question 33 FL-5.1.6 (K1)

Which tests make up the bottom layer of the test pyramid?

  1. A. A few slow end-to-end tests
  2. B. Many small, isolated and fast tests
  3. C. Manual exploratory sessions
  4. D. User acceptance tests
Show answer

Answer: B. Many small, isolated and fast tests

Bottom-layer tests are small, isolated and fast, check small pieces of functionality, and are needed in large numbers.

Question 34 FL-5.1.7 (K2)

Automated component tests that run in the CI pipeline belong to which testing quadrant?

  1. A. Q4: technology facing, critique the product
  2. B. Q3: business facing, critique the product
  3. C. Q2: business facing, support the team
  4. D. Q1: technology facing, support the team
Show answer

Answer: D. Q1: technology facing, support the team

Q1 contains component and component integration tests, which should be automated and part of CI.

Question 35 FL-5.2.2 (K2)

Which of the following is a project risk?

  1. A. The system may respond too slowly during a sale
  2. B. The tax calculation may be incorrect
  3. C. The only performance tester may be unavailable during the test window
  4. D. The login page may contain a security vulnerability
Show answer

Answer: C. The only performance tester may be unavailable during the test window

Staff shortage is a people issue, which is a project risk. The others relate to product quality, so they are product risks.

Question 36 FL-5.2.3 (K2)

How can the results of product risk analysis be used?

  1. A. To determine the test techniques and coverage to apply in each area
  2. B. To replace the need for exit criteria
  3. C. To decide the developers’ salaries
  4. D. To guarantee that all high risks are removed
Show answer

Answer: A. To determine the test techniques and coverage to apply in each area

Product risk analysis helps decide scope, test levels and types, techniques and coverage, effort and priorities. It cannot guarantee that risks disappear.

Question 37 FL-5.3.2 (K2)

Which information is typically included in a test progress report?

  1. A. Lessons learned for future projects
  2. B. Testing planned for the next reporting period
  3. C. Final evaluation of product quality against the exit criteria
  4. D. Defects that will not be fixed in this release
Show answer

Answer: B. Testing planned for the next reporting period

Progress reports include the testing period, progress, impediments, metrics, new and changed risks, and testing planned for the next period. The others belong to the test completion report.

Question 38 FL-5.5.1 (K3)

A tester reports: “ID DEF-77. Title: Wrong total after coupon. Steps: add 2 items, apply SAVE10. Expected: ₹1,800. Actual: ₹1,620. Severity: major. Priority: high. Status: open.” Which information should be added to best help the developer reproduce the failure?

  1. A. The tester’s years of experience
  2. B. The number of tests that passed in the suite
  3. C. The project budget
  4. D. The test object version and the test environment
Show answer

Answer: D. The test object version and the test environment

A defect report should identify the test object and test environment so the failure can be reproduced in the same build and setup.

Chapter 6: Test Tools

Question 39 FL-6.1.1 (K2)

A tool runs the automated test suite and reports which lines of code were executed. Which type of tool is it?

  1. A. Test management tool
  2. B. Static testing tool
  3. C. Test execution and coverage tool
  4. D. Collaboration tool
Show answer

Answer: C. Test execution and coverage tool

Test execution and coverage tools automate test execution and measure coverage.

Question 40 FL-6.2.1 (K1)

Which of the following is a potential risk of test automation?

  1. A. More objective assessment of coverage
  2. B. Dependency on the tool vendor, which may stop supporting the tool
  3. C. Less repetitive manual work
  4. D. Faster feedback on defects
Show answer

Answer: B. Dependency on the tool vendor, which may stop supporting the tool

Vendor dependency is a listed risk. The other options are listed benefits.

How did you do?

Score What it means Next step
32 to 40 Exam-ready Take sample paper 2 to confirm, then book the exam
26 to 31 Pass, but no margin Re-study the chapters where you lost marks, then try paper 2
Below 26 Not yet Go back to the chapter notes and the preparation guide

Answer key

Count one point per correct answer. 26 or more out of 40 is a pass (65%). Aim for 32 or more before you book the real exam.

QAnswerLearning objectiveQAnswerLearning objective
1AFL-1.1.1 (K1)21CFL-4.2.2 (K3)
2CFL-1.2.3 (K2)22AFL-4.2.3 (K3)
3BFL-1.3.1 (K2)23DFL-4.2.4 (K3)
4BFL-1.1.2 (K2)24CFL-4.3.1 (K2)
5DFL-1.4.1 (K2)25BFL-4.3.3 (K2)
6CFL-1.4.3 (K2)26CFL-4.4.2 (K2)
7AFL-1.5.2 (K1)27DFL-4.4.3 (K2)
8DFL-1.5.3 (K2)28BFL-4.5.2 (K2)
9AFL-2.1.3 (K1)29AFL-4.5.3 (K3)
10CFL-2.1.2 (K1)30DFL-5.1.3 (K2)
11BFL-2.1.5 (K2)31CFL-5.1.4 (K3)
12DFL-2.2.1 (K2)32AFL-5.1.5 (K3)
13AFL-2.2.3 (K2)33BFL-5.1.6 (K1)
14CFL-2.3.1 (K2)34DFL-5.1.7 (K2)
15BFL-3.2.3 (K1)35CFL-5.2.2 (K2)
16DFL-3.2.5 (K1)36AFL-5.2.3 (K2)
17AFL-3.1.3 (K2)37BFL-5.3.2 (K2)
18CFL-3.2.4 (K2)38DFL-5.5.1 (K3)
19DFL-4.1.1 (K2)39CFL-6.1.1 (K2)
20BFL-4.2.1 (K3)40BFL-6.2.1 (K1)

This paper: 40 questions (8 × K1, 24 × K2, 8 × K3).

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.

ISTQB CTFL Chapter 6: Test Tools and Test Automation (Benefits and Risks)

Chapter 6 is the shortest chapter: 20 minutes of training and 2 exam questions. It explains the kinds of tools that support testing and the benefits and risks of test automation. Two easy marks if you learn the lists.

ISTQB CTFL › 6. Test Tools Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

Exam weight Questions K-levels Training time
5% 2 1 × K1, 1 × K2 20 minutes

Keyword to remember (K1): test automation.

6.1 Tool support for testing (K2)

Tools support many test activities. The syllabus lists these categories:

Tool type How it supports testing Examples you may know
Test management tools Make the test process more efficient by managing the SDLC, requirements, tests, defects and configuration Test case and defect trackers
Static testing tools Support reviews and static analysis Linters, code analysers, review tools
Test design and implementation tools Help generate test cases, test data and test procedures Test data generators, model-based test generators
Test execution and coverage tools Run tests automatically and measure coverage Selenium, Playwright, pytest, coverage tools
Non-functional testing tools Make non-functional testing possible when it is difficult or impossible manually Load and performance tools, security scanners
DevOps tools Support the delivery pipeline, workflow tracking, automated builds and CI/CD CI servers, pipeline runners
Collaboration tools Make communication easier Chat, wikis, shared boards
Scalability and deployment standardisation tools Provide consistent, repeatable environments Virtual machines, containers
Any other tool that assists testing Even general tools count when used for testing A spreadsheet used to track tests is a test tool
Match the tool to its purpose

K2 questions usually describe what a tool does and ask for its category, for example “a tool that simulates 5,000 concurrent users” → non-functional testing tool; “a tool that flags unused variables without running the code” → static testing tool.

6.2 Benefits and risks of test automation (K1)

Buying a tool does not guarantee success. Every tool needs effort to introduce, maintain and train people on, and its risks must be analysed and mitigated.

Potential benefits Potential risks
Saves time on repetitive manual work: running regression tests, re-entering the same test data, comparing expected and actual results, checking coding standards Unrealistic expectations about what the tool can do and how easy it is
Prevents simple human errors through consistency and repeatability: tests derived consistently, test data created systematically, tests run in the same order and frequency Inaccurate estimates of the time, cost and effort to introduce the tool, maintain scripts and change the manual process
More objective assessment (for example coverage) and measures too complex for humans to calculate Using a tool when manual testing is more appropriate
Easier access to test information for management and reporting: statistics, graphs, aggregated progress, failure rates and execution times Relying on the tool too much and ignoring human critical thinking
Faster test execution, giving earlier defect detection, faster feedback and faster time to market Vendor dependency: the vendor may go out of business, retire or sell the tool, or give poor support
More time for testers to design new, deeper and more effective tests Open-source risks: the project may be abandoned, or its components may need frequent updates
The tool is not compatible with the development platform
The tool does not comply with regulatory or safety standards
Remember the pattern

Benefits are about time, consistency, objectivity, information, speed and freeing testers. Risks are about expectations, estimates, wrong use, over-reliance, vendors, open source, compatibility and compliance.

Learning objectives checklist

LO Level You should be able to…
FL-6.1.1 K2 Explain how different types of test tools support testing
FL-6.2.1 K1 Recall the benefits and risks of test automation

Chapter 6 self-check (6 questions)

Question 1 FL-6.1.1 (K2)

A team uses a tool to simulate thousands of users to measure response times. Which type of tool is this?

  1. A. Static testing tool
  2. B. Test management tool
  3. C. Non-functional testing tool
  4. D. Collaboration tool
Show answer

Answer: C. Non-functional testing tool

Non-functional testing tools allow testing that is difficult or impossible to do manually, such as load and performance testing.

Question 2 FL-6.1.1 (K2)

Which type of tool supports reviews and static analysis?

  1. A. Test execution and coverage tools
  2. B. Static testing tools
  3. C. DevOps tools
  4. D. Test design and implementation tools
Show answer

Answer: B. Static testing tools

Static testing tools support the tester in performing reviews and static analysis.

Question 3 FL-6.1.1 (K2)

Which tools help create consistent, repeatable test environments?

  1. A. Tools supporting scalability and deployment standardisation, such as containers
  2. B. Collaboration tools such as chat
  3. C. Static analysis tools
  4. D. Defect management tools
Show answer

Answer: A. Tools supporting scalability and deployment standardisation, such as containers

The syllabus lists virtual machines and containerisation tools as tools supporting scalability and deployment standardisation.

Question 4 FL-6.2.1 (K1)

Which is a potential benefit of test automation?

  1. A. It removes the need for human critical thinking
  2. B. It reduces repetitive manual work such as re-running regression tests
  3. C. It always costs less than expected to introduce
  4. D. It makes vendor support unnecessary
Show answer

Answer: B. It reduces repetitive manual work such as re-running regression tests

Saving time on repetitive work is a listed benefit. Ignoring critical thinking and underestimating costs are listed risks.

Question 5 FL-6.2.1 (K1)

Which is a potential risk of test automation?

  1. A. More objective coverage measurement
  2. B. Faster feedback on defects
  3. C. Unrealistic expectations about the tool’s functionality and ease of use
  4. D. More time for testers to design better tests
Show answer

Answer: C. Unrealistic expectations about the tool’s functionality and ease of use

Unrealistic expectations are a listed risk. The other options are listed benefits.

Question 6 FL-6.2.1 (K1)

A team adopts an open-source automation library that stops receiving updates a year later. Which risk does this illustrate?

  1. A. Using a tool when manual testing is more appropriate
  2. B. Open-source software that may be abandoned
  3. C. Inaccurate estimation of the effort to introduce a tool
  4. D. Lack of compliance with safety standards
Show answer

Answer: B. Open-source software that may be abandoned

The syllabus lists the risk that open-source software may be abandoned, so no further updates are available.

You have finished the study material. Now test yourself with Sample paper 1, a full 40-question paper in the real exam split.

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.

ISTQB CTFL Chapter 5: Managing the Test Activities (Planning, Risk, Reporting, Defects)

Chapter 5 covers how testing is planned, estimated, prioritised, risk-managed, monitored, reported and kept under control. It carries 9 of the 40 exam questions, including 3 K3 questions on estimation, test case prioritization and defect reports, so it is the second most important chapter after chapter 4.

ISTQB CTFL › 5. Managing the Test Activities Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

Exam weight Questions K-levels Training time
22.5% 9 1 × K1, 5 × K2, 3 × K3 335 minutes

Keywords to remember (K1): defect management, defect report, entry criteria, exit criteria, product risk, project risk, risk, risk analysis, risk assessment, risk control, risk identification, risk level, risk management, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, risk-based testing, test approach, test completion report, test control, test monitoring, test plan, test planning, test progress report, test pyramid, test strategy, testing quadrants.

5.1 Test planning

5.1.1 Purpose and content of a test plan (K2)

A test plan describes the test objectives, resources and processes for a test project. It:

  • documents the means and schedule for reaching the test objectives,
  • helps ensure the test activities will meet the agreed criteria,
  • is a communication tool for the team and stakeholders, and
  • shows that testing follows the test policy and test strategy (or explains why it deviates).

Writing the plan forces the team to think through risks, schedules, people, tools, costs and effort before they happen.

Typical content Examples
Context of testing Scope, test objectives, test basis
Assumptions and constraints “The staging environment is ready by week 2”
Stakeholders Roles, responsibilities, relevance to testing, hiring and training needs
Communication Forms and frequency, document templates
Risk register Product risks and project risks
Test approach Test levels, test types, test techniques, deliverables, entry and exit criteria, independence, metrics, test data and environment requirements, deviations from policy and strategy
Budget and schedule Cost, milestones, dates

5.1.2 Tester’s contribution to iteration and release planning (K1)

Release planning (looks ahead to the release) Iteration planning (looks ahead to the end of one iteration)
Write testable user stories and acceptance criteria Take part in detailed risk analysis of user stories
Take part in project and quality risk analysis Determine the testability of user stories
Estimate test effort for user stories Break stories into tasks, especially testing tasks
Determine the test approach and plan testing for the release Estimate effort for all testing tasks
Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object

5.1.3 Entry criteria and exit criteria (K2)

Entry criteria Exit criteria
Define The preconditions to start an activity What must be achieved to declare an activity complete
If ignored The activity becomes harder, slower, costlier and riskier Testing stops without evidence that objectives were met
Typical examples Resources available (people, tools, environments, test data, budget, time); testware available (test basis, testable requirements, user stories, test cases); initial quality of the test object (for example all smoke tests passed) Measures of thoroughness (coverage achieved, unresolved defects, defect density, failed test cases) and yes/no criteria (planned tests executed, static testing done, all defects reported, regression tests automated)
Agile name Definition of Ready Definition of Done

Both should be defined per test level and depend on the test objectives. Running out of time or budget can also be a valid exit criterion, if stakeholders have reviewed and accepted the risk of going live without more testing.

5.1.4 Estimation techniques (K3)

Estimates are always based on assumptions and contain error; small tasks are estimated more accurately, so large tasks are broken down.

Technique Type How it works
Estimation based on ratios Metrics-based Use ratios from your organisation’s past projects. Example: if the development-to-test ratio was 3:2 and the new development effort is 600 person-days, test effort = 600 × 2 / 3 = 400 person-days
Extrapolation Metrics-based Measure early in the current project, then extrapolate. Very suitable for iterative work. Example: average the test effort of the last three iterations
Wideband Delphi Expert-based Experts estimate in isolation; outliers are discussed; everyone re-estimates in isolation; repeat until consensus. Planning Poker is an Agile variant using numbered cards
Three-point estimation Expert-based Optimistic (a), most likely (m), pessimistic (b). E = (a + 4m + b) / 6, SD = (b − a) / 6

Worked example: three-point estimation

A tester estimates a regression cycle at a = 3 days, m = 5 days, b = 13 days.

  • E = (3 + 4 × 5 + 13) / 6 = 36 / 6 = 6 days
  • SD = (13 − 3) / 6 = 10 / 6 ≈ 1.67 days
  • Report it as 6 ± 1.67 days (about 4.3 to 7.7 days).

Worked example: extrapolation

Test effort in the last three sprints was 18, 22 and 20 person-days. Extrapolating with the average: (18 + 22 + 20) / 3 = 20 person-days for the next sprint.

5.1.5 Test case prioritization (K3)

Once test cases are assembled into suites, they are arranged in a test execution schedule.

Strategy Run first
Risk-based Tests that cover the most important risks
Coverage-based Tests that achieve the highest coverage (for example statement coverage)
Additional coverage (a coverage-based variant) The test with the highest coverage first, then each next test is the one that adds the most additional coverage
Requirements-based Tests for the highest-priority requirements, as set by stakeholders

Two constraints override pure priority:

  1. Dependencies: if a high-priority test depends on a lower-priority one, the lower-priority test runs first.
  2. Resource availability: tools, environments or people may only be available in certain time windows.

Worked example

Test Priority (1 = highest) Depends on
TC1: Pay by card 1 TC4
TC2: Apply coupon 2 TC4
TC3: Download invoice 3 TC1
TC4: Add item to cart 4 none

Order: TC4 → TC1 → TC2 → TC3. TC4 has the lowest priority, but TC1 and TC2 depend on it, so it must run first. Then the remaining tests follow their priority, with TC3 after TC1 as required.

5.1.6 Test pyramid (K1)

The test pyramid shows that tests have different granularity and helps decide how much to automate at each layer.

Layer Granularity and isolation Speed How many
Top: end-to-end / UI tests Coarse, low isolation (many dependencies) Slow Few
Middle: integration / service tests Medium Medium Some
Bottom: unit (component) tests Fine, highly isolated Fast Many

The higher the layer: the lower the granularity and isolation, and the higher the execution time. Layer names and numbers vary; Mike Cohn’s original model used unit, service and UI tests.

5.1.7 Testing quadrants (K2)

Brian Marick’s testing quadrants group test levels with test types, activities, techniques and work products in Agile development. They help make sure all needed test types and levels are included and help explain test types to everyone.

Two dimensions: business facing vs technology facing, and support the team (guide development) vs critique the product (measure it against expectations).

Support the team Critique the product
Business facing Q2: functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, simulations. Check acceptance criteria; manual or automated Q3: exploratory testing, usability testing, user acceptance testing. User-oriented, often manual
Technology facing Q1: component and component integration tests. Automated and part of CI Q4: smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability). Often automated
Usability is the odd one out

Usability is a non-functional characteristic, but usability testing sits in Q3, not Q4. Q4 holds smoke tests and the other non-functional tests.

5.2 Risk management

Risk management raises the chance of meeting objectives, improves product quality and builds stakeholder confidence. Its two main activities:

  • Risk analysis = risk identification + risk assessment
  • Risk control = risk mitigation + risk monitoring

A test approach in which test activities are selected, prioritised and managed based on risk analysis and control is called risk-based testing.

5.2.1 Risk definition and attributes (K1)

A risk is a potential event, hazard, threat or situation whose occurrence causes an adverse effect.

  • Risk likelihood: the probability it happens (greater than 0 and less than 1)
  • Risk impact (harm): the consequences if it happens

Together they give the risk level. The higher the level, the more important it is to treat the risk.

5.2.2 Project risks and product risks (K2)

Project risk Product risk
Related to Management and control of the project Quality characteristics of the product (ISO 25010)
Examples Organisational: late deliveries, inaccurate estimates, cost cutting. People: skill gaps, conflicts, staff shortage. Technical: scope creep, poor tool support. Supplier: third-party delivery failure, vendor bankruptcy Missing or wrong functionality, incorrect calculations, runtime errors, poor architecture, inefficient algorithms, slow response, poor user experience, security vulnerabilities
If it occurs Affects schedule, budget or scope User dissatisfaction; loss of revenue, trust or reputation; damage to third parties; high maintenance or help-desk costs; criminal penalties; in extreme cases physical damage, injury or death
Quick test

Ask “does it describe the software being wrong?” → product risk. “Does it describe the project being late, over budget or understaffed?” → project risk. “The test environment arrives two weeks late” is a project risk; “the GST calculation may be wrong” is a product risk.

5.2.3 Product risk analysis (K2)

Aim: create awareness of product risk so test effort minimises the residual product risk. Start it early in the SDLC.

  • Risk identification: build a comprehensive list of risks using brainstorming, workshops, interviews or cause-effect diagrams.
  • Risk assessment: categorise risks, determine likelihood, impact and level, prioritise them and propose how to handle them.
  • Quantitative: risk level = likelihood × impact.
  • Qualitative: risk level from a risk matrix.

Results of product risk analysis are used to:

  • determine the test scope,
  • determine test levels and propose test types,
  • choose test techniques and the coverage to achieve,
  • estimate effort for each task,
  • prioritise testing to find critical defects early, and
  • decide whether activities other than testing could reduce risk.

Example risk matrix (likelihood × impact, each 1 to 3):

Risk Likelihood Impact Level
Wrong GST on invoices 2 3 6 (high)
Slow product search during sale 3 2 6 (high)
Typo in the footer 2 1 2 (low)

5.2.4 Product risk control (K2)

Risk control = all measures taken in response to analysed risks.

  • Risk mitigation: implement the proposed actions to lower the risk level.
  • Risk monitoring: check that mitigation works, improve the assessment and spot emerging risks.

Response options: mitigation by testing, risk acceptance, risk transfer or a contingency plan.

Ways to mitigate product risk by testing:

  • Choose testers with the right experience and skills for the risk type
  • Apply the right level of independence
  • Do reviews and static analysis
  • Apply suitable test techniques and coverage levels
  • Apply test types that address the affected quality characteristics
  • Run dynamic testing, including regression testing

5.3 Test monitoring, test control and test completion

  • Test monitoring gathers information to assess progress and check whether exit criteria are met (for example coverage of product risks, requirements or acceptance criteria).
  • Test control uses that information to give control directives: corrective actions for effective and efficient testing.
  • Test completion collects data at milestones (end of a test level, iteration, project, release or maintenance release) to consolidate experience and testware.

Examples of control directives:

  • Reprioritise tests when an identified risk becomes an issue
  • Re-evaluate whether a test item meets entry or exit criteria after rework
  • Adjust the test schedule when the test environment is delivered late
  • Add resources where needed

5.3.1 Metrics used in testing (K1)

Category Examples
Project progress Task completion, resource usage, test effort
Test progress Test case implementation progress, environment preparation progress, tests run/not run, passed/failed, execution time
Product quality Availability, response time, mean time to failure
Defect Number and priority of defects found/fixed, defect density, defect detection percentage
Risk Residual risk level
Coverage Requirements coverage, code coverage
Cost Cost of testing, organisational cost of quality

5.3.2 Test reports: purpose, content and audience (K2)

Test progress report Test completion report
When Regularly during testing (daily, weekly…) Once, when a project, test level or test type is complete (ideally when exit criteria are met)
Purpose Support ongoing test control; enough detail to change schedule, resources or plan Summarise a test activity and inform later testing
Typical content Testing period; progress and notable deviations; impediments and workarounds; metrics; new and changed risks; testing planned for next period Test summary; testing and product quality evaluation against the plan’s objectives and exit criteria; deviations from the plan; impediments and workarounds; metrics; unmitigated risks and unfixed defects; lessons learned
Style Often frequent and informal within the team Follows a set template

Different audiences need different information, which affects formality and frequency.

5.3.3 Communicating the status of testing (K2)

Options: verbal communication, dashboards (CI/CD dashboards, task boards, burn-down charts), electronic channels (email, chat), online documentation, and formal test reports. One or more can be used. Distributed teams across time zones often need more formal communication, and information should be tailored to each stakeholder group.

5.4 Configuration management (K2)

Configuration management (CM) identifies, controls and tracks work products such as test plans, strategies, conditions, cases, scripts, results, logs and reports as configuration items.

  • For complex items (for example a test environment), CM records the parts, their relationships and versions.
  • An item approved for testing becomes a baseline and can only change through formal change control.
  • CM records changes when a new baseline is created, so the team can revert to a previous baseline to reproduce earlier test results.

CM ensures that all configuration items, including test items, are uniquely identified, version-controlled, tracked for changes and related to each other (supporting traceability), and that documentation and software items are referenced unambiguously in testware. In DevOps pipelines, CM is usually automated.

5.5 Defect management (K3)

Reported anomalies may be real defects or something else (for example a false positive or a change request). A defect management process has at least a workflow from discovery to closure (log, analyse and classify, decide the response such as fix or keep, close) and classification rules, and everyone must follow it. Defects from static testing should be handled similarly.

Defect reports aim to:

  • give the people resolving the issue enough information to fix it,
  • provide a way to track the quality of the work product, and
  • give ideas for improving development and test processes.

A defect report from dynamic testing typically includes:

Field Example
Unique identifier DEF-1042
Title with a short summary Coupon FLAT200 accepted for a ₹1,200 cart
Date, issuing organisation, author and role 3 Nov 2026, QA team, Asha (tester)
Test object and test environment Checkout v2.3.1, staging, Chrome 131
Context Test case TC-CPN-07, system testing, BVA on the coupon threshold
Description with steps to reproduce, plus logs, screenshots or recordings 1. Add items worth ₹1,200. 2. Apply FLAT200. 3. Observe the total
Expected and actual results Expected: “Coupon valid on orders over ₹1,499”. Actual: ₹200 discount applied
Severity (impact) Major: revenue loss on every small order
Priority to fix High
Status Open (others: deferred, duplicate, waiting to be fixed, awaiting confirmation testing, re-opened, closed, rejected)
References TC-CPN-07, user story US-88
Severity vs priority

Severity is the impact of the defect. Priority is how soon it should be fixed. A spelling mistake in the company name on the home page can be low severity but high priority.

Learning objectives checklist

LO Level You should be able to…
FL-5.1.1 K2 Give examples of the purpose and content of a test plan
FL-5.1.2 K1 Recognise how a tester adds value to iteration and release planning
FL-5.1.3 K2 Compare entry and exit criteria
FL-5.1.4 K3 Use estimation techniques to calculate test effort
FL-5.1.5 K3 Apply test case prioritization
FL-5.1.6 K1 Recall the test pyramid
FL-5.1.7 K2 Summarise the testing quadrants
FL-5.2.1 K1 Identify risk level from likelihood and impact
FL-5.2.2 K2 Distinguish project and product risks
FL-5.2.3 K2 Explain how product risk analysis shapes thoroughness and scope
FL-5.2.4 K2 Explain the measures taken in response to product risks
FL-5.3.1 K1 Recall metrics used in testing
FL-5.3.2 K2 Summarise the purpose, content and audience of test reports
FL-5.3.3 K2 Give examples of how to communicate test status
FL-5.4.1 K2 Summarise how configuration management supports testing
FL-5.5.1 K3 Prepare a defect report

Chapter 5 self-check (14 questions)

Question 1 FL-5.1.1 (K2)

Which of these is typical content of a test plan?

  1. A. The actual results of executed test cases
  2. B. The risk register, test approach, and budget and schedule
  3. C. The list of defects fixed in the last release
  4. D. The source code of automated test scripts
Show answer

Answer: B. The risk register, test approach, and budget and schedule

A test plan typically contains the context, assumptions, stakeholders, communication, risk register, test approach (including entry and exit criteria), and budget and schedule. Results, fixed defects and scripts come from later activities.

Question 2 FL-5.1.2 (K1)

During iteration planning, which is a typical tester activity?

  1. A. Defining the product backlog for the whole release
  2. B. Breaking user stories down into testing tasks and estimating them
  3. C. Writing the test completion report
  4. D. Approving the release budget
Show answer

Answer: B. Breaking user stories down into testing tasks and estimating them

In iteration planning testers do detailed risk analysis of stories, assess testability, break stories into tasks (especially testing tasks) and estimate them.

Question 3 FL-5.1.3 (K2)

Which is an example of an entry criterion?

  1. A. 95% of requirements are covered by executed tests
  2. B. All smoke tests on the new build have passed
  3. C. No high-severity defects remain open
  4. D. The test completion report has been approved
Show answer

Answer: B. All smoke tests on the new build have passed

The initial quality level of the test object, such as passed smoke tests, is a typical entry criterion. The others describe what must be achieved to finish, so they are exit criteria.

Question 4 FL-5.1.4 (K3)

Three-point estimates for a test task are a = 4, m = 7 and b = 16 person-hours. What is the estimate E?

  1. A. 7 person-hours
  2. B. 8 person-hours
  3. C. 9 person-hours
  4. D. 10 person-hours
Show answer

Answer: B. 8 person-hours

E = (4 + 4 × 7 + 16) / 6 = 48 / 6 = 8 person-hours. The standard deviation is (16 − 4) / 6 = 2.

Question 5 FL-5.1.4 (K3)

In a past project the ratio of development effort to test effort was 5:3. The new project’s development effort is estimated at 250 person-days. Using estimation based on ratios, what is the test effort?

  1. A. 120 person-days
  2. B. 150 person-days
  3. C. 166 person-days
  4. D. 417 person-days
Show answer

Answer: B. 150 person-days

Test effort = 250 × 3 / 5 = 150 person-days.

Question 6 FL-5.1.5 (K3)

Tests have these priorities (1 = highest) and dependencies: T1 (1) needs T3; T2 (2) has none; T3 (3) has none; T4 (4) needs T2. Which execution order follows the priorities while respecting dependencies?

  1. A. T1, T2, T3, T4
  2. B. T3, T1, T2, T4
  3. C. T2, T3, T1, T4
  4. D. T3, T2, T1, T4
Show answer

Answer: B. T3, T1, T2, T4

T1 has the highest priority but needs T3, so T3 runs first, then T1. Next comes T2 (priority 2), then T4, which needs T2.

Question 7 FL-5.1.6 (K1)

According to the test pyramid, which statement is true for tests in the top layer?

  1. A. They are fast and highly isolated
  2. B. They are needed in large numbers
  3. C. They are slower and check large pieces of functionality
  4. D. They have the highest granularity
Show answer

Answer: C. They are slower and check large pieces of functionality

Higher layers have lower granularity and isolation and longer execution times. Top-layer end-to-end tests are slow, check large pieces of functionality, and only a few are needed.

Question 8 FL-5.1.7 (K2)

In the testing quadrants, where does usability testing belong?

  1. A. Q1: technology facing, supporting the team
  2. B. Q2: business facing, supporting the team
  3. C. Q3: business facing, critiquing the product
  4. D. Q4: technology facing, critiquing the product
Show answer

Answer: C. Q3: business facing, critiquing the product

Q3 contains exploratory testing, usability testing and user acceptance testing. Q4 holds smoke tests and the other non-functional tests, except usability.

Question 9 FL-5.2.1 (K1)

Using the quantitative approach, risk A has likelihood 0.4 and impact 5, and risk B has likelihood 0.8 and impact 2. Which statement is correct?

  1. A. Risk A has the higher risk level
  2. B. Risk B has the higher risk level
  3. C. Both risks have the same risk level
  4. D. Risk level cannot be calculated without a risk matrix
Show answer

Answer: A. Risk A has the higher risk level

Risk level = likelihood × impact. A = 0.4 × 5 = 2.0 and B = 0.8 × 2 = 1.6, so risk A is higher.

Question 10 FL-5.2.2 (K2)

Which of the following is a product risk?

  1. A. The key test analyst may leave the company mid-project
  2. B. The test environment may be delivered three weeks late
  3. C. The loan calculator may return incorrect interest amounts
  4. D. The tool vendor may go bankrupt
Show answer

Answer: C. The loan calculator may return incorrect interest amounts

Incorrect calculations relate to the product’s quality, so it is a product risk. Staff loss, late environments and supplier issues are project risks.

Question 11 FL-5.2.4 (K2)

Which is a way to mitigate a product risk by testing?

  1. A. Transferring the risk to an insurance company
  2. B. Applying appropriate test techniques and coverage levels for the risky area
  3. C. Accepting the risk and doing nothing
  4. D. Reducing the number of testers to save budget
Show answer

Answer: B. Applying appropriate test techniques and coverage levels for the risky area

Applying suitable test techniques and coverage is a listed mitigation-by-testing measure. Transfer and acceptance are other response options, not testing.

Question 12 FL-5.3.2 (K2)

Which information is typical of a test completion report but NOT of a test progress report?

  1. A. Test metrics
  2. B. Impediments and workarounds
  3. C. Lessons learned
  4. D. Testing period
Show answer

Answer: C. Lessons learned

Lessons learned are part of the completion report. Both reports contain metrics and impediments; the testing period is a progress-report item.

Question 13 FL-5.4.1 (K2)

How does configuration management support testing?

  1. A. It decides which defects must be fixed first
  2. B. It makes sure test items and testware are uniquely identified and version-controlled so results can be reproduced
  3. C. It replaces the need for test planning
  4. D. It automatically writes test cases from requirements
Show answer

Answer: B. It makes sure test items and testware are uniquely identified and version-controlled so results can be reproduced

CM identifies, version-controls and tracks configuration items and keeps baselines, so earlier test results can be reproduced and traceability is maintained.

Question 14 FL-5.5.1 (K3)

A defect report says only: “Checkout is broken, please fix ASAP.” Which essential information is missing that would most help the developer reproduce the failure?

  1. A. The name of the tester’s manager
  2. B. Steps to reproduce with expected and actual results, the test object and environment
  3. C. The total number of test cases in the project
  4. D. A list of all features that work correctly
Show answer

Answer: B. Steps to reproduce with expected and actual results, the test object and environment

To resolve the issue, developers need the test object and environment, steps to reproduce, and expected versus actual results. The other options do not help reproduction.

Next: Chapter 6: Test Tools.

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.

ISTQB CTFL Chapter 4: Test Analysis and Design (Test Techniques with Worked Examples)

Chapter 4 is the heart of the exam. It carries 11 of the 40 questions, and 5 of them are K3 questions where you must apply a technique to a scenario. This page explains every technique with worked examples you can follow step by step, then gives you practice questions in the exam style.

ISTQB CTFL › 4. Test Analysis and Design Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

Exam weight Questions K-levels Training time
27.5% 11 6 × K2, 5 × K3 390 minutes

Keywords to remember (K1): acceptance criteria, acceptance test-driven development, black-box test technique, boundary value analysis, branch coverage, checklist-based testing, collaboration-based test approach, coverage, coverage item, decision table testing, equivalence partitioning, error guessing, experience-based test technique, exploratory testing, state transition testing, statement coverage, test technique, white-box test technique.

4.1 Test techniques overview (K2)

Test techniques help testers decide what to test (test analysis) and how to test (test design). They produce a small but sufficient set of test cases in a systematic way, and help identify test conditions, coverage items and test data.

The syllabus groups techniques into three families:

Family Also called Based on Key point
Black-box Specification-based The specified behaviour, without looking at the internal structure Tests stay valid even if the implementation changes but the required behaviour does not
White-box Structure-based The internal structure and processing (code, architecture, flows) Tests can only be created after the design or implementation exists
Experience-based The tester’s knowledge and experience Effectiveness depends heavily on the tester’s skill; finds defects the other two can miss, so they complement each other

A fourth group, collaboration-based approaches (section 4.5), focuses on avoiding defects through collaboration and communication.

4.2 Black-box test techniques

4.2.1 Equivalence partitioning (K3)

Equivalence partitioning (EP) splits data into partitions whose members are expected to be processed the same way. If one value in a partition reveals a defect, any other value in it should too, so one test per partition is enough.

Rules from the syllabus:

  • Partitions can be found for inputs, outputs, configuration items, internal values, time values and interface parameters.
  • They can be continuous or discrete, ordered or unordered, finite or infinite.
  • Partitions must not overlap and must not be empty.
  • Valid partitions hold values that should be processed; invalid partitions hold values that should be rejected or ignored (teams may define these slightly differently).
  • Coverage items = partitions, including invalid ones.
  • EP coverage = partitions exercised ÷ partitions identified × 100%.

Worked example 1: a single input

A loyalty program gives 1 point per ₹100 for orders of ₹100 to ₹10,000 (whole rupees). Orders below ₹100 earn no points, and orders above ₹10,000 need manager approval.

Partition Values Valid? Example test value
P1 ≤ 99 Valid (no points) 50
P2 100 to 10,000 Valid (points) 2,500
P3 ≥ 10,001 Valid (approval) 15,000
P4 Not a number Invalid “abc”

Four test cases give 100% EP coverage. If only 50, 2,500 and 15,000 were tested, coverage would be 3 ÷ 4 = 75%.

Worked example 2: several inputs and Each Choice coverage

When a test item has several sets of partitions, the simplest criterion is Each Choice coverage: every partition of every set is exercised at least once, without caring about combinations.

Checkout: payment method {card, UPI, net banking} and delivery {standard, express}.

Test Payment Delivery
1 Card Standard
2 UPI Express
3 Net banking Standard (any)

Three tests cover all 3 + 2 = 5 partitions. The minimum for Each Choice is the size of the largest set, here 3.

4.2.2 Boundary value analysis (K3)

Boundary value analysis (BVA) tests the edges of ordered partitions, because developers often misplace or forget boundaries (for example writing < instead of ≤). The boundary values are the minimum and maximum of each partition, including invalid partitions.

Version Coverage items per boundary value Coverage formula
2-value BVA The boundary value and its closest neighbour in the adjacent partition Boundary values exercised ÷ boundary values identified
3-value BVA The boundary value and both of its neighbours Boundary values and neighbours exercised ÷ all identified

3-value BVA is more rigorous. For example, if x ≤ 10 is wrongly coded as x = 10, the 2-value tests 10 and 11 both behave correctly, but the 3-value test 9 exposes the defect.

Worked example: password length

A password must be 8 to 16 characters long.

Partitions: ≤ 7 (invalid), 8 to 16 (valid), ≥ 17 (invalid). Boundary values: 7, 8, 16, 17.

Values to test Count
2-value BVA 7, 8, 16, 17 4
3-value BVA 6, 7, 8, 9, 15, 16, 17, 18 8

How the 3-value set is built: for 7 → 6, 7, 8; for 8 → 7, 8, 9; for 16 → 15, 16, 17; for 17 → 16, 17, 18. Duplicates are removed, leaving 8 values.

Check your arithmetic twice

Most BVA mistakes in the exam come from (1) forgetting that the boundaries of the invalid partitions also count, and (2) not removing duplicate values. Write the partitions down before you count.

4.2.3 Decision table testing (K3)

Decision tables test requirements where combinations of conditions lead to different actions, such as business rules.

  • Conditions and actions are the rows; each column is a decision rule (one combination).
  • Limited-entry tables use only true/false; extended-entry tables allow ranges, partitions or multiple values.
  • Notation: T = true, F = false, – = irrelevant, N/A = infeasible; for actions X = happens, blank = does not happen.
  • A full table has a column for every combination: with n Boolean conditions, 2ⁿ columns.
  • Columns with infeasible combinations can be deleted, and columns where a condition does not matter can be merged (minimisation algorithms are out of scope).
  • Coverage items = feasible columns. Coverage = columns exercised ÷ feasible columns.

Strengths: systematic, finds missing combinations, and reveals gaps and contradictions in requirements. Weakness: the number of rules grows exponentially, so large tables may need minimisation or a risk-based selection.

Worked example: delivery and discount rules

Free delivery if the customer is a member OR the order is over ₹999. An extra 5% discount only if the customer is a member AND pays online.

R1 R2 R3 R4 R5 R6 R7 R8
C1 Member? T T T T F F F F
C2 Order > ₹999? T T F F T T F F
C3 Pays online? T F T F T F T F
A1 Free delivery X X X X X X
A2 5% discount X X

Three conditions → 2³ = 8 rules, all feasible, so 100% decision table coverage needs 8 test cases. If a test suite exercised only R1, R4 and R8, coverage would be 3 ÷ 8 = 37.5%.

Merging example: R7 and R8 have the same actions and differ only in C3, so they could be merged into one column “F, F, –”.

4.2.4 State transition testing (K3)

A state diagram models a system’s states and the valid transitions between them. A transition is triggered by an event, may have a guard condition, and may cause an action: written as event [guard] / action. A state table shows the same model as a grid (states × events); empty cells are invalid transitions, which the diagram does not show.

Three coverage criteria:

Criterion Coverage items Strength
All states coverage States Weakest; can often be achieved without exercising every transition
Valid transitions coverage (0-switch) Single valid transitions Most widely used; 100% guarantees 100% all states
All transitions coverage All valid and invalid transitions in the state table Strongest; 100% guarantees both others. Should be the minimum for mission- and safety-critical software

Test only one invalid transition per test case to avoid defect masking (one defect hiding another).

Worked example: article publishing workflow

States: Draft, In review, Approved, Published. Valid transitions:

From Event To
Draft submit In review
In review approve Approved
In review reject Draft
Approved publish Published

State table (blank = invalid):

State \ Event submit approve reject publish
Draft In review
In review Approved Draft
Approved Published
Published
  • All states: one test, submit → approve → publish, visits all 4 states.
  • Valid transitions: that test misses reject. One longer test, submit → reject → submit → approve → publish, covers all 4 valid transitions.
  • All transitions: 4 × 4 = 16 cells, of which 12 are invalid. Each invalid transition needs its own test case, so you need at least 12 test cases; the valid transitions can be covered inside them on the way to each invalid attempt.

4.3 White-box test techniques

4.3.1 Statement testing and statement coverage (K2)

Coverage items = executable statements. Statement coverage = statements exercised ÷ executable statements.

100% statement coverage means every statement ran at least once, so any statement with a defect was executed. But it does not guarantee finding every defect (for example a division by zero that only fails for one value), and it does not ensure all decision logic was tested.

4.3.2 Branch testing and branch coverage (K2)

A branch is a transfer of control between two nodes in the control flow graph: either unconditional (straight-line) or conditional (a decision outcome, such as true/false of an if, a case, or exiting or continuing a loop).

Coverage items = branches. Branch coverage = branches exercised ÷ total branches.

Branch coverage subsumes statement coverage: 100% branch coverage always gives 100% statement coverage, but not the other way round. Even 100% branch coverage may miss defects that need a specific path.

Worked example

1  read amount
2  if amount > 1000 then
3      discount = amount * 0.1
4  end if
5  print amount - discount
  • One test with amount = 1500 executes every statement → 100% statement coverage. But it only takes the true outcome of the decision; the false branch (skipping line 3) is never exercised, so branch coverage is below 100%.
  • Adding a test with amount = 500 takes the false branch → 100% branch coverage with 2 tests.
  • Notice the defect the second test reveals: when the false branch runs, discount was never initialised. Statement coverage alone missed it.

4.3.3 The value of white-box testing (K2)

Strength Weakness
Takes the whole implementation into account, so defects can be found even when the specification is vague, outdated or incomplete Cannot find defects of omission: if a requirement was never implemented, there is no code to cover
Gives an objective measure of code coverage, which black-box testing alone cannot
Can be used in static testing (dry runs, reviewing code not yet runnable, pseudocode, control flow graphs)

4.4 Experience-based test techniques

4.4.1 Error guessing (K2)

The tester anticipates errors, defects and failures using knowledge of how the application behaved before, the mistakes developers tend to make, and failures in similar applications. Typical problem areas: input (valid input rejected, missing parameters), output (wrong format or result), logic (missing cases, wrong operator), computation, interfaces (parameter mismatch) and data (wrong initialisation or type).

Fault attacks are a structured way to do error guessing: build a list of likely errors, defects and failures, then design tests to expose them.

Example list for a date field: 29 February in a non-leap year, 31 April, an empty value, a year with two digits, a date far in the future, a date in another format.

4.4.2 Exploratory testing (K2)

Tests are designed, executed and evaluated at the same time while the tester learns about the test object. Often organised as session-based testing:

  • A fixed time box (for example 60 minutes)
  • A test charter with the test objectives to guide the session
  • Test session sheets to note steps and discoveries
  • A debriefing with stakeholders afterwards

Most useful when specifications are poor or there is time pressure, and as a complement to formal techniques. It works best with experienced testers who have domain knowledge, analytical skill, curiosity and creativity, and it can use other techniques such as EP inside a session.

Example charter: “Explore the coupon feature with expired, stacked and case-varied codes to discover pricing errors.”

4.4.3 Checklist-based testing (K2)

The tester designs and runs tests to cover conditions from a checklist, built from experience, knowledge of what matters to users, or an understanding of why software fails.

Good checklists:

  • Phrase items as questions that can be checked separately and directly.
  • Do not include items that can be checked automatically, items better used as entry or exit criteria, or items that are too general.
  • Are updated regularly from defect analysis, because items wear out as developers learn to avoid those errors, while staying reasonably short.

They support functional and non-functional testing (for example usability heuristics). High-level checklists give some consistency without detailed test cases, with more variability: potentially greater coverage but less repeatability.

4.5 Collaboration-based test approaches

These approaches aim at defect avoidance through collaboration and communication, not only defect detection.

4.5.1 Collaborative user story writing (K2)

A user story describes a feature valuable to a user or purchaser. It has three critical aspects, the 3 C’s:

C Meaning
Card The medium: an index card or an entry on an electronic board
Conversation How the software will be used; spoken or documented
Confirmation The acceptance criteria

Common format: “As a [role], I want [goal], so that [business value]”, followed by the acceptance criteria. Business, development and testing write it together, using techniques such as brainstorming and mind mapping, to get a shared vision.

Good stories follow INVEST: Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable. If a stakeholder cannot say how to test a story, it may be unclear, may not be valuable to them, or they may just need help with testing.

4.5.2 Acceptance criteria (K2)

Acceptance criteria are the conditions an implementation must meet to be accepted by stakeholders; they can be seen as the test conditions for the story. They usually come out of the Conversation.

They are used to: define the scope of the story, reach consensus among stakeholders, describe positive and negative scenarios, serve as the basis for acceptance testing, and allow accurate planning and estimation.

Format Example
Scenario-oriented (Given/When/Then, as in BDD) Given a cart worth ₹1,200, When the user applies coupon FLAT200, Then the total is ₹1,000
Rule-oriented (bullet verification list or input-output table) • Coupon works only on carts over ₹1,499 • Only one coupon per order • Codes are not case-sensitive

Teams may use other formats as long as the criteria are well-defined and unambiguous.

4.5.3 Acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) (K3)

ATDD is a test-first approach: test cases are written before the story is implemented, by people with different perspectives (customers, developers, testers).

  1. Specification workshop: analyse, discuss and write the user story and its acceptance criteria; resolve gaps and ambiguities.
  2. Create test cases from the acceptance criteria (as a team or by the tester). These are examples of how the software works. Techniques from 4.2 to 4.4 can be used.
  3. Order: positive tests first, then negative tests, then non-functional characteristics.
  4. Write tests in language stakeholders understand: preconditions, inputs and postconditions.
  5. Tests must cover all characteristics of the story, must not go beyond it, and no two tests should describe the same characteristic.
  6. In a format an automation framework supports, developers can automate them as they build the feature, making them executable requirements.

Worked example

Story: As a shopper, I want to save items for later, so that I can buy them another day. Acceptance criteria: (1) a “Save for later” button moves an item from the cart to a saved list; (2) saved items stay after logout and login; (3) a saved item that goes out of stock shows “Out of stock” and cannot be moved back to the cart.

Test Type Steps and expected result
T1 Positive Given an item in the cart, When the shopper clicks “Save for later”, Then the item leaves the cart and appears in the saved list
T2 Positive Given a saved item, When the shopper logs out and logs in again, Then the item is still in the saved list
T3 Negative Given a saved item that goes out of stock, When the shopper opens the saved list, Then it shows “Out of stock” and “Move to cart” is disabled

A test such as “the saved list loads in under 1 second” would be a non-functional test that comes after these, and only if it is part of the story’s acceptance criteria. A test for “share the saved list by email” would go beyond the story and should not be included.

Learning objectives checklist

LO Level You should be able to…
FL-4.1.1 K2 Distinguish black-box, white-box and experience-based techniques
FL-4.2.1 K3 Use equivalence partitioning to derive test cases
FL-4.2.2 K3 Use boundary value analysis to derive test cases
FL-4.2.3 K3 Use decision table testing to derive test cases
FL-4.2.4 K3 Use state transition testing to derive test cases
FL-4.3.1 K2 Explain statement testing
FL-4.3.2 K2 Explain branch testing
FL-4.3.3 K2 Explain the value of white-box testing
FL-4.4.1 K2 Explain error guessing
FL-4.4.2 K2 Explain exploratory testing
FL-4.4.3 K2 Explain checklist-based testing
FL-4.5.1 K2 Explain collaborative user story writing
FL-4.5.2 K2 Classify the options for writing acceptance criteria
FL-4.5.3 K3 Use ATDD to derive test cases

Chapter 4 self-check (14 questions)

Question 1 FL-4.1.1 (K2)

Which statement about black-box test techniques is correct?

  1. A. Test cases can only be created after the code is written
  2. B. Test cases remain useful if the implementation changes but the required behaviour stays the same
  3. C. They measure the percentage of code executed
  4. D. Their effectiveness depends mainly on the tester’s experience
Show answer

Answer: B. Test cases remain useful if the implementation changes but the required behaviour stays the same

Black-box tests are based on the specified behaviour, independent of how it is implemented. Creating tests after the code and measuring code coverage describe white-box techniques; dependence on experience describes experience-based techniques.

Question 2 FL-4.2.1 (K3)

A shipping fee rule uses parcel weight in whole kilograms: 1 to 5 kg costs ₹50, 6 to 20 kg costs ₹120, and over 20 kg is rejected. Weights of 0 or less are invalid. What is the minimum number of test cases for 100% equivalence partitioning coverage?

  1. A. 2
  2. B. 3
  3. C. 4
  4. D. 6
Show answer

Answer: C. 4

The partitions are ≤0 (invalid), 1 to 5, 6 to 20, and ≥21 (rejected). One value from each of the 4 partitions is enough.

Question 3 FL-4.2.1 (K3)

A form has a “plan” field {Basic, Pro, Enterprise} and a “billing” field {Monthly, Yearly}. What is the minimum number of test cases for 100% Each Choice coverage?

  1. A. 2
  2. B. 3
  3. C. 5
  4. D. 6
Show answer

Answer: B. 3

Each partition of each set must be exercised at least once. Three tests can cover the three plans while also covering both billing options, so the minimum is the size of the largest set, 3.

Question 4 FL-4.2.2 (K3)

An exam score is valid from 0 to 100 (whole numbers). Using 2-value boundary value analysis, which set gives 100% coverage?

  1. A. 0, 100
  2. B. 0, 1, 99, 100
  3. C. −1, 0, 100, 101
  4. D. −1, 0, 1, 99, 100, 101
Show answer

Answer: C. −1, 0, 100, 101

The partitions are ≤−1, 0 to 100, and ≥101. The boundary values are −1, 0, 100 and 101. 2-value BVA covers each boundary and its closest neighbour in the adjacent partition, which is exactly this set.

Question 5 FL-4.2.2 (K3)

A field accepts 1 to 50 items per order. Using 3-value boundary value analysis, how many distinct values must be tested?

  1. A. 4
  2. B. 6
  3. C. 8
  4. D. 10
Show answer

Answer: C. 8

Boundary values are 0, 1, 50 and 51. With both neighbours of each: 0 → −1, 0, 1; 1 → 0, 1, 2; 50 → 49, 50, 51; 51 → 50, 51, 52. Without duplicates: −1, 0, 1, 2, 49, 50, 51, 52 = 8 values.

Question 6 FL-4.2.3 (K3)

A decision table has 4 independent Boolean conditions and no infeasible combinations. Tests exercise 6 of its rules. What is the decision table coverage?

  1. A. 25%
  2. B. 37.5%
  3. C. 50%
  4. D. 75%
Show answer

Answer: B. 37.5%

A full table with 4 Boolean conditions has 2⁴ = 16 rules. Coverage is 6 ÷ 16 = 37.5%.

Question 7 FL-4.2.3 (K3)

What is the main strength of decision table testing?

  1. A. It always produces fewer test cases than equivalence partitioning
  2. B. It systematically identifies combinations of conditions and can reveal gaps in requirements
  3. C. It measures branch coverage of the code
  4. D. It needs no knowledge of the requirements
Show answer

Answer: B. It systematically identifies combinations of conditions and can reveal gaps in requirements

Decision tables make every combination of conditions explicit, so overlooked combinations and contradictions or gaps in requirements become visible.

Question 8 FL-4.2.4 (K3)

A state table has 5 states and 4 events. Exactly 7 cells contain valid transitions. How many invalid transitions must be attempted to achieve 100% all transitions coverage?

  1. A. 7
  2. B. 13
  3. C. 20
  4. D. 27
Show answer

Answer: B. 13

The table has 5 × 4 = 20 cells. 20 − 7 valid = 13 invalid transitions, each of which must be attempted (ideally one per test case).

Question 9 FL-4.2.4 (K3)

Which statement about state transition coverage criteria is correct?

  1. A. 100% all states coverage guarantees 100% valid transitions coverage
  2. B. 100% valid transitions coverage guarantees 100% all states coverage
  3. C. All transitions coverage does not include invalid transitions
  4. D. Valid transitions coverage is the strongest criterion
Show answer

Answer: B. 100% valid transitions coverage guarantees 100% all states coverage

Exercising every valid transition necessarily visits every state. The reverse is not true. All transitions coverage includes invalid transitions and is the strongest criterion.

Question 10 FL-4.3.2 (K2)

Which statement about statement and branch coverage is correct?

  1. A. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage
  2. B. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage
  3. C. Branch coverage counts only unconditional transfers of control
  4. D. 100% branch coverage guarantees that all defects are found
Show answer

Answer: B. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage

Branch coverage subsumes statement coverage. Branches include both conditional and unconditional transfers, and even full branch coverage can miss defects that need a specific path.

Question 11 FL-4.3.3 (K2)

Which is a weakness of white-box testing?

  1. A. It cannot be used in static testing
  2. B. It cannot detect defects of omission, such as missing requirements
  3. C. It gives no measure of code coverage
  4. D. It cannot be applied when the specification is incomplete
Show answer

Answer: B. It cannot detect defects of omission, such as missing requirements

If a requirement was never implemented, there is no code to cover, so white-box testing cannot reveal it. It can be used statically, measures coverage objectively and works even with vague specifications.

Question 12 FL-4.4.1 (K2)

A tester has a list of failures seen in similar payment apps and designs tests to provoke them. Which technique is this?

  1. A. Exploratory testing
  2. B. Error guessing using fault attacks
  3. C. Checklist-based testing
  4. D. Decision table testing
Show answer

Answer: B. Error guessing using fault attacks

Building a list of likely errors, defects and failures and designing tests to expose them is a fault attack, a way to implement error guessing.

Question 13 FL-4.4.2 (K2)

Which element is typical of session-based exploratory testing?

  1. A. Detailed test cases written weeks in advance
  2. B. A test charter, a time box and a debriefing
  3. C. A full decision table for each feature
  4. D. Mandatory 100% statement coverage
Show answer

Answer: B. A test charter, a time box and a debriefing

Session-based testing structures exploratory testing with a time-boxed session guided by a test charter, followed by a debriefing with stakeholders.

Question 14 FL-4.5.3 (K3)

A story says “As a shopper, I want to apply one coupon per order.” Using ATDD, which test should be written FIRST?

  1. A. Apply two coupons and check the second is rejected
  2. B. Apply one valid coupon and check the total is reduced correctly
  3. C. Check the coupon screen loads in under 1 second
  4. D. Check that coupons can be shared on social media
Show answer

Answer: B. Apply one valid coupon and check the total is reduced correctly

ATDD starts with positive tests that confirm correct behaviour, then negative tests (A), then non-functional ones (C). Option D goes beyond the story.

Next: Chapter 5: Managing the Test Activities.

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.

ISTQB CTFL Chapter 3: Static Testing, Reviews and Review Types (Study Notes)

Chapter 3 is about finding defects without running the software. It covers what static testing can examine, why it pays off, how it differs from dynamic testing, the review process, the roles people play in a review, the four common review types and what makes reviews succeed. It carries 4 of the 40 exam questions.

ISTQB CTFL › 3. Static Testing Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

Exam weight Questions K-levels Training time
10% 4 2 × K1, 2 × K2 80 minutes

Keywords to remember (K1): anomaly, dynamic testing, formal review, informal review, inspection, review, static analysis, static testing, technical review, walkthrough.

3.1 Static testing basics

In static testing the software is not executed. Work products such as code, specifications or architecture documents are examined either manually (reviews) or with tools (static analysis). The objectives include improving quality, detecting defects and assessing characteristics such as readability, completeness, correctness, testability and consistency. Static testing supports both verification and validation.

In Agile teams, testers, business representatives (product owner, business analyst) and developers work together in example mapping, collaborative user story writing and backlog refinement to make sure user stories meet criteria such as the Definition of Ready. Testers ask questions that expose gaps, so stories end up complete, understandable and with testable acceptance criteria.

Static analysis finds problems before dynamic testing, often with less effort because no test cases are needed. It is usually tool-based and often runs inside CI pipelines. Besides code defects, it evaluates maintainability and security. Spell checkers and readability tools are also static analysis tools.

3.1.1 Work products examinable by static testing (K1)

Almost any work product can be statically tested: requirement specifications, source code, test plans, test cases, product backlog items, test charters, project documentation, contracts and models.

Technique What it can examine
Review Anything a person can read and understand
Static analysis Work products with a structure a tool can check: code, models, text with a formal syntax

Not suitable: work products that are hard for people to interpret and that should not be analysed by tools, for example third-party executable code (for legal reasons).

3.1.2 Value of static testing (K2)

  • Finds defects in the earliest phases of the SDLC (early testing principle).
  • Finds defects that dynamic testing cannot, such as unreachable code, design patterns not implemented as intended, and defects in non-executable work products.
  • Evaluates quality and builds confidence in work products; stakeholders can check that requirements describe their real needs.
  • Creates a shared understanding and better communication among stakeholders, so a wide variety of stakeholders should take part.
  • Reviews cost effort, but overall project cost is usually much lower than without reviews, because less time is spent fixing defects later.
  • Static analysis finds some code defects more efficiently than dynamic testing, leading to fewer defects and less development effort overall.

3.1.3 Static testing vs dynamic testing (K2)

They complement each other and share objectives, but they differ:

Static testing Dynamic testing
Finds defects directly Causes failures; defects are then found by analysis
Can reach code paths that are rarely executed or hard to reach Only covers what the tests actually execute
Works on non-executable work products too Works only on executable work products
Measures characteristics that do not need execution, for example maintainability Measures characteristics that need execution, for example performance efficiency
Some defect types can only be found statically Some defect types can only be found dynamically

Defects that are easier or cheaper to find with static testing:

Category Examples
Requirements defects Inconsistencies, ambiguities, contradictions, omissions, inaccuracies, duplications
Design defects Inefficient database structures, poor modularisation
Certain coding defects Variables with undefined values, undeclared variables, unreachable or duplicated code, excessive complexity
Deviations from standards Not following naming conventions
Incorrect interface specifications Wrong number, type or order of parameters
Some security vulnerabilities Buffer overflows
Gaps in test basis coverage A missing test for an acceptance criterion

3.2 Feedback and review process

3.2.1 Benefits of early and frequent stakeholder feedback (K1)

Early and frequent feedback surfaces quality problems early. Without it, the product may not match what stakeholders originally wanted or want now, leading to costly rework, missed deadlines, blame games and even project failure.

Frequent feedback prevents misunderstandings about requirements, makes sure requirement changes are understood and implemented sooner, helps the team understand what it is building, and lets it focus on the features with the most value and the biggest effect on identified risks.

3.2.2 Review process activities (K2)

The ISO/IEC 20246 standard describes a generic review process that teams tailor. More formal reviews perform more of the tasks. Large work products may need several passes through the process.

Activity What happens
1. Planning Define the scope: purpose, work product, quality characteristics to evaluate, focus areas, exit criteria, supporting information such as standards, effort and timeframe
2. Review initiation Make sure everyone and everything is ready: participants have access to the work product, understand their roles and have what they need
3. Individual review Each reviewer examines the work product using review techniques (for example checklist-based or scenario-based reviewing) and logs anomalies, recommendations and questions
4. Communication and analysis Anomalies are not automatically defects, so they are discussed and a decision is made on status, ownership and actions, typically in a review meeting. The group also decides the quality of the work product and the follow-up actions; a follow-up review may be needed
5. Fixing and reporting A defect report is created for every defect so corrective action can be tracked. When the exit criteria are met, the work product can be accepted and the review results are reported
Memory aid

Please Invite Interested Colleagues First: Planning, Initiation, Individual review, Communication and analysis, Fixing and reporting.

3.2.3 Roles and responsibilities in reviews (K1)

Role Responsibility
Manager Decides what is reviewed and provides resources (staff and time)
Author Creates and fixes the work product under review
Moderator (facilitator) Runs review meetings effectively: mediation, time management and a safe environment where everyone can speak freely
Scribe (recorder) Collates anomalies from reviewers and records decisions and new anomalies found in the meeting
Reviewer Performs the review; can be a project member, a subject matter expert or any other stakeholder
Review leader Takes overall responsibility for the review: decides who is involved, and organises when and where it takes place
Do not mix up these three

Manager = what to review and resources. Review leader = who takes part, when and where. Moderator = how the meeting runs. Exam options often swap these.

3.2.4 Review types (K2)

The right level of formality depends on the SDLC, process maturity, criticality and complexity of the work product, legal or regulatory needs and the need for an audit trail. The same work product can be reviewed several times, first informally and later formally.

Informal review Walkthrough Technical review Inspection
Process No defined process and no formal documented output Tailored from the generic process Tailored from the generic process Most formal: follows the complete generic review process
Led by Not specified The author A moderator A review leader; the author cannot be the review leader or the scribe
Main objective Detect anomalies Many: evaluate quality, build confidence, educate reviewers, gain consensus, generate ideas, help authors improve, detect anomalies Gain consensus and make decisions on a technical problem; also detect anomalies, evaluate quality, build confidence, generate ideas, help authors improve Find the maximum number of anomalies; also evaluate quality, build confidence, help authors improve
Notable detail Lightweight Individual review beforehand is possible but not required Done by technically qualified reviewers Metrics are collected and used to improve the SDLC, including the inspection process
Quick recall

Walkthrough → author leads, education. Technical review → moderator leads, technical decisions. Inspection → most formal, maximum anomalies, metrics, author is not the leader or scribe.

3.2.5 Success factors for reviews (K1)

  • Clear objectives and measurable exit criteria; evaluating the participants must never be an objective.
  • Choose the right review type for the objectives, work product, participants and context.
  • Review small chunks so reviewers stay focused.
  • Give feedback to stakeholders and authors so they can improve.
  • Give participants enough time to prepare.
  • Management support for the review process.
  • Make reviews part of the organisation’s culture, promoting learning and process improvement.
  • Train all participants in their roles.
  • Facilitate meetings.

Learning objectives checklist

LO Level You should be able to…
FL-3.1.1 K1 Recognise work products that can be examined by static testing
FL-3.1.2 K2 Explain the value of static testing
FL-3.1.3 K2 Compare and contrast static and dynamic testing
FL-3.2.1 K1 Identify the benefits of early and frequent stakeholder feedback
FL-3.2.2 K2 Summarise the review process activities
FL-3.2.3 K1 Recall the responsibilities of the principal review roles
FL-3.2.4 K2 Compare and contrast the review types
FL-3.2.5 K1 Recall the factors for successful reviews

Chapter 3 self-check (10 questions)

Question 1 FL-3.1.1 (K1)

Which work product is NOT appropriate for static analysis by a tool?

  1. A. Source code written by the team
  2. B. A UML model with a formal syntax
  3. C. Third-party executable code that the licence forbids analysing
  4. D. A requirements document checked with a spelling tool
Show answer

Answer: C. Third-party executable code that the licence forbids analysing

Work products that should not be analysed by tools, such as third-party executable code for legal reasons, are not appropriate for static testing.

Question 2 FL-3.1.2 (K2)

Which defect is static testing more likely to find than dynamic testing?

  1. A. A memory leak that appears after 8 hours of use
  2. B. Unreachable code in a rarely used module
  3. C. A slow response under 1,000 concurrent users
  4. D. A crash when the network is disconnected
Show answer

Answer: B. Unreachable code in a rarely used module

Unreachable code cannot be executed, so dynamic testing cannot find it, while static analysis or a code review can. The other options need execution.

Question 3 FL-3.1.3 (K2)

Which statement correctly contrasts static and dynamic testing?

  1. A. Static testing causes failures; dynamic testing finds defects directly
  2. B. Static testing can only be applied to executable work products
  3. C. Static testing can measure maintainability; dynamic testing can measure performance efficiency
  4. D. Static and dynamic testing find exactly the same types of defects
Show answer

Answer: C. Static testing can measure maintainability; dynamic testing can measure performance efficiency

Static testing measures characteristics that do not need execution (such as maintainability) and dynamic testing measures those that do (such as performance efficiency).

Question 4 FL-3.2.1 (K1)

What is a likely consequence of little stakeholder involvement during development?

  1. A. Fewer regression tests are needed
  2. B. The product may not meet the stakeholders’ vision, causing costly rework
  3. C. Static analysis tools become more effective
  4. D. Exit criteria are met sooner
Show answer

Answer: B. The product may not meet the stakeholders’ vision, causing costly rework

Without early and frequent feedback, the product may not match what stakeholders want, leading to rework, missed deadlines, blame and even project failure.

Question 5 FL-3.2.2 (K2)

In which review activity do reviewers log anomalies, recommendations and questions using techniques such as checklist-based reviewing?

  1. A. Planning
  2. B. Review initiation
  3. C. Individual review
  4. D. Fixing and reporting
Show answer

Answer: C. Individual review

During the individual review each reviewer examines the work product with review techniques and logs what they find.

Question 6 FL-3.2.2 (K2)

In which review activity are the review’s exit criteria first defined?

  1. A. Planning
  2. B. Communication and analysis
  3. C. Individual review
  4. D. Fixing and reporting
Show answer

Answer: A. Planning

Planning defines the scope of the review, including its purpose, focus areas and exit criteria. Fixing and reporting checks that the exit criteria are met.

Question 7 FL-3.2.3 (K1)

Who decides what is to be reviewed and provides staff and time for it?

  1. A. Review leader
  2. B. Moderator
  3. C. Manager
  4. D. Scribe
Show answer

Answer: C. Manager

The manager decides what is reviewed and provides resources. The review leader decides who is involved and organises when and where.

Question 8 FL-3.2.3 (K1)

Which role ensures the review meeting runs effectively, including time management and a safe environment?

  1. A. Author
  2. B. Moderator
  3. C. Scribe
  4. D. Reviewer
Show answer

Answer: B. Moderator

The moderator (facilitator) handles mediation, time management and a safe environment where everyone can speak freely.

Question 9 FL-3.2.4 (K2)

A review is led by the author, and its main aims are to educate the reviewers and gain consensus. Which review type is it?

  1. A. Informal review
  2. B. Walkthrough
  3. C. Technical review
  4. D. Inspection
Show answer

Answer: B. Walkthrough

A walkthrough is led by the author and can serve objectives such as educating reviewers and gaining consensus. In an inspection the author cannot lead.

Question 10 FL-3.2.5 (K1)

Which is a success factor for reviews?

  1. A. Using review results to evaluate the performance of the participants
  2. B. Reviewing the entire specification in one long session
  3. C. Defining clear objectives and measurable exit criteria
  4. D. Holding reviews without management involvement
Show answer

Answer: C. Defining clear objectives and measurable exit criteria

Clear objectives and measurable exit criteria are a success factor. Evaluating participants must never be an objective, small chunks work better, and management support is needed.

Next: Chapter 4: Test Analysis and Design.

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.

ISTQB CTFL Chapter 2: Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle (Study Notes)

Chapter 2 shows how testing changes with the way software is built. You will learn how the development lifecycle shapes testing, how test-first approaches and DevOps work, what shift left means, the five test levels, the four test types, confirmation versus regression testing, and when maintenance testing is needed. It carries 6 of the 40 exam questions.

ISTQB CTFL › 2. Testing Throughout the SDLC Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

Exam weight Questions K-levels Training time
15% 6 2 × K1, 4 × K2 130 minutes

Keywords to remember (K1): acceptance testing, black-box testing, component integration testing, component testing, confirmation testing, functional testing, integration testing, maintenance testing, non-functional testing, regression testing, shift left, system integration testing, system testing, test level, test object, test type, white-box testing.

2.1 Testing in the context of an SDLC

An SDLC model is a high-level picture of how software development is organised: which phases and activities exist and how they relate in logic and time.

Family Examples Key idea
Sequential Waterfall, V-model One phase follows another; code arrives late
Iterative Spiral, prototyping Repeat cycles that refine the product
Incremental Unified Process Deliver the product in pieces

On top of these models, teams use more detailed methods and Agile practices such as ATDD, BDD, domain-driven design (DDD), Extreme Programming (XP), feature-driven development (FDD), Kanban, Lean IT, Scrum and TDD.

2.1.1 Impact of the SDLC on testing (K2)

Testing must fit the chosen SDLC. The SDLC affects:

  • the scope and timing of test activities (test levels and test types),
  • the level of detail of test documentation,
  • the choice of test techniques and test approach,
  • the extent of test automation, and
  • the role and responsibilities of the tester.
SDLC What testing looks like
Sequential (for example V-model) Early on, testers review requirements and do test analysis and design. Executable code comes late, so dynamic testing usually cannot start early.
Iterative and incremental Each iteration delivers a working increment, so static and dynamic testing can happen at all test levels in every iteration. Frequent delivery needs fast feedback and extensive regression testing.
Agile Change is expected at any time, so teams prefer lightweight documentation and heavy test automation for regression. Manual testing is often done with experience-based techniques that need little up-front analysis and design.

2.1.2 Good testing practices for every SDLC (K1)

Whatever the lifecycle:

  1. Every development activity has a matching test activity, so everything is subject to quality control.
  2. Each test level has its own specific objectives, so testing is thorough without being redundant.
  3. Test analysis and design for a level starts during the matching development phase (early testing).
  4. Testers review work products as soon as drafts exist, which supports shift left.

2.1.3 Testing as a driver for development: TDD, ATDD and BDD (K1)

In these test-first approaches, tests are written before the code and guide development. All three apply early testing, follow shift left and support iterative development. The tests often stay as automated tests to protect future changes and refactoring.

Approach How it works Who mainly writes the tests
TDD (test-driven development) Write a test, write code until it passes, then refactor tests and code. Tests drive the coding instead of extensive design Developers
ATDD (acceptance test-driven development) Derive tests from acceptance criteria during system design, then build the feature to pass them The whole team: business, developers, testers
BDD (behaviour-driven development) Describe the desired behaviour in simple natural language, usually Given/When/Then, which stakeholders understand; then turn it into executable tests Business and team together

Example BDD scenario:

Given a registered customer with ₹500 in their wallet When they buy an item costing ₹200 using the wallet Then the wallet balance shows ₹300

2.1.4 DevOps and testing (K2)

DevOps brings development (including testing) and operations together around common goals. It needs a cultural shift and promotes team autonomy, fast feedback, integrated toolchains and practices such as continuous integration (CI) and continuous delivery (CD), delivered through a DevOps pipeline.

Benefits for testing Risks and challenges
Fast feedback on code quality and on whether changes break existing code The delivery pipeline must be defined and set up
CI promotes shift left: developers submit code with component tests and static analysis CI/CD tools must be introduced and maintained
Automated CI/CD helps create stable test environments Test automation needs extra resources and can be hard to build and maintain
Better visibility of non-functional characteristics such as performance and reliability
Less repetitive manual testing thanks to pipeline automation
Lower regression risk because of large automated regression suites
Manual testing does not disappear

Even with heavy automation in DevOps, manual testing from the user’s perspective is still needed. An option saying “DevOps removes the need for manual testing” is wrong.

2.1.5 Shift left (K2)

Shift left is another name for the principle of early testing: do testing earlier in the SDLC instead of waiting for code or integration. It does not mean that later testing can be skipped.

Good shift-left practices:

  • Testers review specifications, finding ambiguities, gaps and inconsistencies.
  • Write test cases before the code and run the code in a test harness while it is being written.
  • Use CI, and better still CD, for fast feedback with automated component tests on every commit.
  • Run static analysis on source code before dynamic testing, or automatically in the pipeline.
  • Start non-functional testing at the component level where possible, instead of waiting for a complete system.

Shift left may cost extra training, effort and money early, but it is expected to save more later. Stakeholders must buy into it.

2.1.6 Retrospectives and process improvement (K2)

A retrospective is a meeting, often at the end of an iteration, release or project (or whenever needed), where the whole team (testers, developers, architects, product owner, business analysts) discusses:

  • What went well and should be kept?
  • What did not go well and could be improved?
  • How do we apply the improvements and keep the successes?

Results are recorded, normally in the test completion report, and actions must be followed up.

Benefits for testing: more effective and efficient testing, better testware, team bonding and learning, a better test basis (requirements gaps get fixed), and better cooperation between development and testing.

2.2 Test levels and test types

A test level is a group of test activities organised and managed together, for software at a given stage, from single components to whole systems or systems of systems. Each test level is an instance of the test process. A test type is a group of test activities aimed at specific quality characteristics; most test types can be done at every test level.

In sequential models, the exit criteria of one level are often part of the entry criteria for the next. In iterative models this may not apply, and levels can overlap in time.

2.2.1 The five test levels (K2)

Test level Also called Focus Typically done by
Component testing Unit testing Components in isolation; often needs test harnesses or unit test frameworks Developers, in their development environment
Component integration testing Unit integration testing Interfaces and interactions between components; depends heavily on the integration strategy (bottom-up, top-down, big-bang) Developers
System testing Overall behaviour and capabilities of the whole system: end-to-end functional tasks and non-functional characteristics (for example usability on a complete system in a representative environment) Often an independent test team
System integration testing Interfaces between the system and other systems and external services; needs an environment close to production Testers
Acceptance testing Validation and readiness for deployment: does the system meet the users’ business needs? Ideally the intended users

Forms of acceptance testing: user acceptance testing (UAT), operational acceptance testing, contractual and regulatory acceptance testing, alpha testing and beta testing.

Test levels are told apart by their test object, test objectives, test basis, defects and failures, and approach and responsibilities.

Example for an online food-delivery app:

  • Component test: the function that calculates the delivery fee.
  • Component integration test: the cart service correctly passes items to the pricing service.
  • System test: a customer can search, order, pay and track an order end to end, and the app responds within 2 seconds.
  • System integration test: the app talks correctly to the payment gateway and the maps API.
  • Acceptance test: restaurant owners and customers confirm the app supports their real workflow.

2.2.2 The four test types (K2)

Test type Question it answers Based on
Functional testing What should the system do? Checks functional completeness, correctness and appropriateness Requirements, user stories
Non-functional testing How well does it behave? Checks quality characteristics Quality requirements (ISO/IEC 25010)
Black-box testing Does the behaviour match the specification? Specifications, not internal structure
White-box testing Is the internal structure covered well enough? Code, architecture, workflows, data flows

The ISO/IEC 25010 non-functional quality characteristics listed in the syllabus:

  • Performance efficiency
  • Compatibility
  • Usability (also called interaction capability)
  • Reliability
  • Security
  • Maintainability
  • Portability (also called flexibility)
  • Safety

Non-functional testing can start early (in reviews or component testing). Many non-functional tests reuse functional tests but add a constraint, for example “the search must return results in under 1 second”. Finding non-functional defects late can seriously threaten a project, and some tests need special environments such as a usability lab.

All four test types can be applied at all test levels, with a different focus at each level.

2.2.3 Confirmation testing and regression testing (K2)

Confirmation testing Regression testing
Purpose Confirm that the original defect is fixed Confirm that the change caused no adverse side effects elsewhere
What is run The tests that failed because of the defect, plus new tests for any changes made in the fix; at minimum, the steps that reproduced the failure Tests of the changed area, other components, connected systems and even the environment
How much Depends on risk Decided by impact analysis
Automation Optional A strong candidate for automation, because regression suites run many times and grow every release

Both are needed at every test level where defects are fixed or changes are made. In CI and DevOps, automated regression tests should be part of the pipeline.

The order matters

A fix is first confirmation tested (is the defect gone?) and then regression tested (did the fix break anything else?). Regression testing also follows new features and environment changes, not only defect fixes.

2.3 Maintenance testing (K2)

Once software is in operation, changes keep coming. Maintenance can be corrective, adaptive (to changes in the environment) or aimed at improving performance or maintainability. Releases can be planned or unplanned (hot fixes).

Maintenance testing checks both that the change works and that the unchanged parts (usually most of the system) still work. Impact analysis can be done before a change to decide whether to make it at all.

The scope of maintenance testing depends on:

  • the risk of the change,
  • the size of the existing system, and
  • the size of the change.
Trigger Example What to test
Modification Planned enhancement, corrective change, hot fix The change plus regression
Upgrade or migration of the operational environment Moving from on-premise servers to the cloud; migrating data from an old CRM The new environment, the changed software, and data conversion
Retirement Shutting down a legacy application Data archiving, and restore and retrieval procedures if data must be kept for years

Learning objectives checklist

LO Level You should be able to…
FL-2.1.1 K2 Explain how the chosen SDLC affects testing
FL-2.1.2 K1 Recall good testing practices for all SDLCs
FL-2.1.3 K1 Recall examples of test-first approaches
FL-2.1.4 K2 Summarise how DevOps affects testing
FL-2.1.5 K2 Explain shift left
FL-2.1.6 K2 Explain how retrospectives drive process improvement
FL-2.2.1 K2 Distinguish the test levels
FL-2.2.2 K2 Distinguish the test types
FL-2.2.3 K2 Distinguish confirmation testing from regression testing
FL-2.3.1 K2 Summarise maintenance testing and its triggers

Chapter 2 self-check (10 questions)

Question 1 FL-2.1.1 (K2)

In a sequential SDLC such as the V-model, which statement about testing is most accurate?

  1. A. Dynamic testing usually starts in the first phase of the project
  2. B. Testers review requirements and design tests early, but dynamic testing usually starts later
  3. C. Test automation is always more extensive than in Agile projects
  4. D. Only experience-based techniques are used
Show answer

Answer: B. Testers review requirements and design tests early, but dynamic testing usually starts later

In sequential models, executable code arrives late, so early test work is reviews, test analysis and test design; dynamic testing comes later.

Question 2 FL-2.1.2 (K1)

Which is a good testing practice that applies to all SDLCs?

  1. A. Every test level should have the same test objectives
  2. B. Test design should start only after all code is complete
  3. C. For every development activity there is a corresponding test activity
  4. D. Testers should review work products only once they are final
Show answer

Answer: C. For every development activity there is a corresponding test activity

Pairing each development activity with a test activity keeps everything under quality control. Each level has different objectives, test design starts early, and testers review drafts.

Question 3 FL-2.1.3 (K1)

Which approach expresses tests in a Given/When/Then format that business stakeholders can understand?

  1. A. Test-driven development
  2. B. Behaviour-driven development
  3. C. Exploratory testing
  4. D. Component integration testing
Show answer

Answer: B. Behaviour-driven development

BDD describes desired behaviour in simple natural language, usually Given/When/Then, and then turns it into executable tests.

Question 4 FL-2.1.4 (K2)

Which is a benefit of DevOps for testing?

  1. A. Manual testing is no longer needed
  2. B. Test automation needs no extra resources
  3. C. Fast feedback on whether changes adversely affect existing code
  4. D. CI/CD tools never need maintenance
Show answer

Answer: C. Fast feedback on whether changes adversely affect existing code

Fast feedback is a listed benefit. Manual testing from the user’s view is still needed, and automation and CI/CD tools are listed challenges.

Question 5 FL-2.1.5 (K2)

Which practice is an example of shift left?

  1. A. Running all performance tests only after system integration testing
  2. B. Running static analysis on source code before dynamic testing
  3. C. Skipping system testing because component tests passed
  4. D. Writing test cases after the code has been released
Show answer

Answer: B. Running static analysis on source code before dynamic testing

Static analysis before dynamic testing (or in the pipeline) moves defect detection earlier. Shift left does not mean skipping later testing.

Question 6 FL-2.1.6 (K2)

Where are the results of a retrospective normally recorded?

  1. A. In the defect reports
  2. B. In the test completion report
  3. C. In the test execution schedule
  4. D. In the risk register only
Show answer

Answer: B. In the test completion report

Retrospective results are recorded and are normally part of the test completion report, and improvement actions must be followed up.

Question 7 FL-2.2.1 (K2)

Testing that the online shop correctly exchanges data with an external payment gateway belongs to which test level?

  1. A. Component testing
  2. B. Component integration testing
  3. C. System integration testing
  4. D. Acceptance testing
Show answer

Answer: C. System integration testing

System integration testing focuses on interfaces between the system under test and other systems and external services.

Question 8 FL-2.2.2 (K2)

Checking that a report is generated within 3 seconds is an example of which test type?

  1. A. Functional testing
  2. B. Non-functional testing
  3. C. White-box testing
  4. D. Confirmation testing
Show answer

Answer: B. Non-functional testing

Response time is about how well the system behaves (performance efficiency), which is non-functional testing.

Question 9 FL-2.2.3 (K2)

A defect in the discount calculation has been fixed. Which activity checks that the fix did not break the invoice module?

  1. A. Confirmation testing
  2. B. Regression testing
  3. C. Acceptance testing
  4. D. Component testing
Show answer

Answer: B. Regression testing

Confirmation testing checks the defect itself is fixed. Regression testing checks for adverse effects elsewhere, such as in the invoice module.

Question 10 FL-2.3.1 (K2)

A company is shutting down an old HR system but must keep employee records for 10 years. What should maintenance testing focus on?

  1. A. Usability of new screens
  2. B. Data archiving and restore and retrieval procedures
  3. C. Component testing of new features
  4. D. Performance under peak load
Show answer

Answer: B. Data archiving and restore and retrieval procedures

Retirement is a maintenance trigger. When long data retention is needed, testing covers data archiving and the procedures to restore and retrieve the data.

Next: Chapter 3: Static Testing.

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.

ISTQB CTFL Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing (Study Notes with Questions)

Chapter 1 builds the vocabulary for the whole exam. It explains what testing is and is not, why it is needed, the seven principles, the activities that make up a test process, the work products they create, and the skills and roles of the people who test. It carries 8 of the 40 exam questions.

ISTQB CTFL › 1. Fundamentals of Testing Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

Exam weight Questions K-levels Training time
20% 8 2 × K1, 6 × K2 180 minutes

Keywords to remember (K1): coverage, debugging, defect, error, failure, quality, quality assurance, root cause, test analysis, test basis, test case, test completion, test condition, test control, test data, test design, test execution, test implementation, test monitoring, test object, test objective, test planning, test procedure, test process, test result, testing, testware, traceability, validation, verification.

1.1 What is testing?

Software testing is a set of activities to find defects and evaluate the quality of software work products. Whatever is being tested is called the test object: a piece of code, a whole system, a requirement document or a user story.

Two misconceptions appear in exam questions again and again:

  1. “Testing is just running tests.” Running the software is only one activity. Testing also includes planning, analysing requirements, designing test cases, reviewing documents, reporting and learning lessons.
  2. “Testing only checks that the system meets the specification.” That is verification. Testing also includes validation: checking that the system meets users’ and stakeholders’ real needs in its operational environment.
Verification Validation
Question Are we building the product right? Are we building the right product?
Checks against Specified requirements User and stakeholder needs
Example The discount is 10% as the requirement says Customers actually understand and use the discount screen

Testing can be static (no execution: reviews and static analysis, see chapter 3) or dynamic (the software is executed, see chapter 4). It is also a managed activity that needs planning, estimating, monitoring and control (chapter 5), and it uses tools (chapter 6). Above all, testing is an intellectual activity that needs specialist knowledge, analytical skill, critical thinking and systems thinking.

1.1.1 Test objectives (K1)

Typical objectives of testing:

  • Evaluating work products such as requirements, user stories, designs and code
  • Causing failures and finding defects
  • Ensuring the required coverage of a test object
  • Reducing the risk of inadequate software quality
  • Verifying that specified requirements are fulfilled
  • Verifying compliance with contractual, legal and regulatory requirements
  • Providing information so stakeholders can make informed decisions
  • Building confidence in the quality of the test object
  • Validating that the test object is complete and works as stakeholders expect

The objectives change with the context: the work product, the test level, the risks, the SDLC, and business factors such as time to market. For example, component testing mainly aims to find defects early, while acceptance testing mainly aims to build confidence and support a release decision.

Spot the non-objective

“Proving that the software has no defects” is never a test objective. Testing can only show that defects are present (principle 1).

1.1.2 Testing and debugging (K2)

Testing and debugging are separate activities done for different reasons.

Testing Debugging
Purpose Trigger failures (dynamic) or find defects directly (static) Find, analyse and remove the cause of a failure
Typically done by Testers and developers Developers
Output Failures, defect reports, information about quality A fixed defect

When a dynamic test triggers a failure, debugging usually involves three steps: reproduce the failure, diagnose it (find the defect), and fix the defect. Afterwards, confirmation testing checks that the fix worked, ideally run by the person who ran the original test, and regression testing checks that the fix did not break anything else.

When static testing finds a defect (for example, a reviewer spots a wrong formula in a design document), debugging is simply removing it. There is no failure to reproduce or diagnose, because nothing was executed.

1.2 Why is testing necessary?

Testing is a form of quality control. It helps the team reach the agreed objectives within scope, time, quality and budget constraints. Testing is not only the test team’s job: anyone on the project can use testing skills.

1.2.1 Testing’s contributions to success (K2)

  • Detects defects cost-effectively. Defects can then be removed by debugging, so testing contributes indirectly to better quality.
  • Evaluates quality directly at each stage of the SDLC, giving data for decisions such as “can we release?”.
  • Represents users indirectly. Testers bring the users’ view into the project, which is cheaper and more practical than involving many real users throughout development.
  • Meets contractual, legal or regulatory needs, for example safety standards in medical or automotive software.

Example: an online banking team tests the funds-transfer feature before release. The tests find that transfers over ₹1,00,000 are rounded wrongly. Fixing this before go-live avoids financial loss and reputational damage, which shows testing’s value.

1.2.2 Testing and quality assurance (K1)

People often use “testing” and “QA” as if they meant the same thing. They do not.

Testing Quality assurance (QA)
Focus The product The process
Approach Corrective: find and help remove defects Preventive: improve processes so fewer defects are made
Type A major form of quality control (others are formal methods, simulation and prototyping) Implementing and improving development and test processes
Who Testers and developers Everyone on the project
Use of test results To fix defects As feedback on how well the processes work

1.2.3 Errors, defects, failures and root causes (K2)

This chain appears in almost every exam:

Root cause → error (mistake) → defect (fault, bug) → failure

  • A human error (mistake) happens because of time pressure, complexity, tiredness or lack of training.
  • The error produces a defect in a work product: in code, a requirement, a test script or even a build file.
  • If defective code is executed, it may cause a failure: the system does something it should not do, or does not do something it should.
  • The root cause is the fundamental reason the problem occurred, found through root cause analysis. Removing it prevents similar defects in future.

Example: a developer was given an unclear requirement (root cause), misunderstood the GST rule (error), and coded 18% instead of 12% (defect). A customer sees the wrong tax on an invoice (failure).

Important details:

  • Not every defect causes a failure. Some only fail under specific conditions; some never fail.
  • Failures can also be caused by environmental conditions, such as radiation or electromagnetic fields damaging firmware, without any human error in the code.
  • Defects in early work products (requirements, designs), if not found, often lead to defects in later ones.

1.3 The seven testing principles (K2)

# Principle What it means Example
1 Testing shows the presence, not the absence, of defects Testing reduces the chance of undiscovered defects but can never prove the software is defect-free 500 passed tests do not prove the payment module has no bugs
2 Exhaustive testing is impossible Testing every input and path is not feasible except in trivial cases; use techniques, prioritization and risk to focus effort A 10-character password field has more combinations than you could ever run
3 Early testing saves time and money Defects removed early do not cause defects in later work products, so the cost of quality drops Reviewing the requirements finds a wrong rule before any code is written
4 Defects cluster together A small number of components contain most defects (the Pareto principle) 80% of production incidents come from the checkout module, so test it more
5 Tests wear out Repeating the same tests finds fewer new defects; update tests and data, though repeated automated regression tests are still useful The same 50 regression tests have passed for months but customers still report bugs
6 Testing is context dependent There is no single right way to test; a game, a pacemaker and an e-commerce site need different approaches Safety-critical software needs formal, independent testing; a startup MVP may not
7 Absence-of-defects fallacy A system with no known defects can still fail if it does not meet users’ needs; verification is not enough, validation is also needed A perfectly coded app that customers find too confusing to use
Memory aid

“Please Eat Every Delicious Tomato Carefully All day”: Presence, Exhaustive, Early, Defects cluster, Tests wear out, Context, Absence-of-defects fallacy.

Old names

Older material calls principle 5 the “pesticide paradox”. The v4.0 syllabus uses “tests wear out”. Both describe the same idea.

1.4 Test activities, testware and test roles

1.4.1 Test activities and tasks (K2)

A test process is a set of test activities. The activities often look sequential, but in practice they are iterative and overlap, and they are tailored to the project.

Activity Key question Main tasks
Test planning What are we trying to achieve and how? Define test objectives and choose an approach that meets them within the constraints
Test monitoring and test control Are we on track? What must we change? Monitoring: continuously compare progress with the plan. Control: take actions to meet the objectives
Test analysis What to test? Analyse the test basis, identify testable features, define and prioritise test conditions with their risks, find defects in the test basis, judge testability
Test design How to test? Turn test conditions into test cases and other testware (such as test charters), identify coverage items, define test data and environment requirements, identify tools
Test implementation Is everything ready to run? Create test data, organise test cases into test procedures and test suites, write manual and automated test scripts, build the test execution schedule, set up and verify the test environment
Test execution What happened? Run tests per the schedule, compare actual and expected results, log results, analyse anomalies and report defects
Test completion What did we learn? At milestones: create change requests for open defects, archive reusable testware, shut down the environment, gather lessons learned, write the test completion report
“What” vs “how”

Test analysis answers “what to test” (test conditions). Test design answers “how to test” (test cases). Questions often swap these two to trick you.

1.4.2 Test process in context (K2)

Testing is part of the organisation’s development process and is funded to meet business needs, so how you test depends on the context:

  • Stakeholders: needs, expectations, willingness to cooperate
  • Team members: skills, experience, availability, training needs
  • Business domain: criticality, risks, market needs, legal regulations
  • Technical factors: type of software, architecture, technology
  • Project constraints: scope, time, budget, resources
  • Organisational factors: structure, policies, practices
  • SDLC: engineering practices and development methods
  • Tools: availability, usability, compliance

These factors shape the test strategy, the techniques used, the degree of automation, the required coverage, the level of detail in testware and the reporting.

1.4.3 Testware (K2)

Testware is the set of work products created by the test activities. Configuration management (chapter 5) keeps it consistent.

Activity Typical testware
Test planning Test plan, test schedule, risk register, entry and exit criteria
Monitoring and control Test progress reports, documented control directives, risk information
Test analysis Prioritised test conditions (for example acceptance criteria), defect reports about the test basis
Test design Prioritised test cases, test charters, coverage items, test data requirements, test environment requirements
Test implementation Test procedures, manual and automated test scripts, test suites, test data, test execution schedule, environment items such as stubs, drivers, simulators and service virtualisations
Test execution Test logs, defect reports
Test completion Test completion report, improvement actions, lessons learned, change requests (for example product backlog items)

A risk register lists the risks with their likelihood, impact and mitigation.

1.4.4 Traceability between the test basis and testware (K2)

Traceability means keeping links between test basis items (requirements, user stories, risks), the testware for them (test conditions, test cases), the test results and the defects.

Why it matters:

  • Coverage evaluation: tracing test cases to requirements shows which requirements are tested.
  • Residual risk: tracing test results to risks shows how much risk remains.
  • Impact analysis: when a requirement changes, you know which tests to update.
  • Audits and IT governance: you can prove what was tested.
  • Clear reporting: progress and completion reports can show status per requirement, which business stakeholders understand.

1.4.5 Roles in testing (K2)

The syllabus describes two principal roles:

Test management role Testing role
Responsible for The test process, the test team and leadership of test activities The engineering (technical) side of testing
Main activities Test planning, monitoring, control and completion Test analysis, design, implementation and execution

These are roles, not job titles. A team leader, test manager or development manager can play the test management role, and in Agile teams some management tasks are handled by the team itself. One person can hold both roles at the same time.

1.5 Essential skills and good practices in testing

1.5.1 Generic skills required for testing (K2)

Skill Why it helps
Testing knowledge More effective testing, for example by using test techniques
Thoroughness, carefulness, curiosity, attention to detail, being methodical Finding defects, especially hard-to-find ones
Communication, active listening, being a team player Working with stakeholders and reporting defects so they are understood
Analytical thinking, critical thinking, creativity More effective testing
Technical knowledge More efficient testing, for example by using the right tools
Domain knowledge Understanding and talking with end users and business representatives

Testers often bring bad news, and people tend to blame the messenger. Confirmation bias makes it hard for authors to accept information that challenges what they believe. So testers should communicate defects constructively: describe facts, focus on the product rather than the person, and explain the impact.

1.5.2 Whole team approach (K1)

The whole team approach comes from Extreme Programming (XP). Any team member with the right skills can do any task, and everyone is responsible for quality. The team shares a workspace (physical or virtual).

Advantages:

  • Better team dynamics, communication and collaboration
  • Synergy from combining different skill sets
  • Testers help business representatives write acceptance tests and agree test strategy and automation with developers
  • Testing knowledge spreads across the team

It is not always appropriate: safety-critical systems, for example, may need a high level of independent testing.

1.5.3 Independence of testing (K2)

Independence makes testers more effective at finding defects because the tester’s cognitive biases differ from the author’s. It does not replace familiarity: developers can efficiently find many defects in their own code.

Level of independence Who tests
None The author
Some Peers from the same team
High Testers outside the author’s team but inside the organisation
Very high Testers from outside the organisation

Most projects use several levels: developers do component and component integration testing, a test team does system and system integration testing, and business representatives do acceptance testing.

Benefits Drawbacks
Independent testers recognise different kinds of failures and defects because of different backgrounds, perspectives and biases Isolation from the development team, leading to poor collaboration, communication problems or an adversarial relationship
They can verify, challenge or disprove assumptions made by stakeholders Developers may lose their sense of responsibility for quality
Independent testers may be seen as a bottleneck or blamed for release delays

Learning objectives checklist

LO Level You should be able to…
FL-1.1.1 K1 Identify typical test objectives
FL-1.1.2 K2 Differentiate testing from debugging
FL-1.2.1 K2 Give examples of why testing is necessary
FL-1.2.2 K1 Recall the relation between testing and quality assurance
FL-1.2.3 K2 Distinguish root cause, error, defect and failure
FL-1.3.1 K2 Explain the seven testing principles
FL-1.4.1 K2 Explain the test activities and their tasks
FL-1.4.2 K2 Explain how context affects the test process
FL-1.4.3 K2 Differentiate the testware of each activity
FL-1.4.4 K2 Explain the value of traceability
FL-1.4.5 K2 Compare the test management and testing roles
FL-1.5.1 K2 Give examples of generic testing skills
FL-1.5.2 K1 Recall the advantages of the whole team approach
FL-1.5.3 K2 Distinguish benefits and drawbacks of independent testing

Chapter 1 self-check (12 questions)

Question 1 FL-1.1.1 (K1)

Which of the following is a typical objective of testing?

  1. A. Proving that the software contains no defects
  2. B. Building confidence in the quality of the test object
  3. C. Removing the defects that caused failures
  4. D. Improving the development process followed by the team
Show answer

Answer: B. Building confidence in the quality of the test object

Building confidence is one of the listed test objectives. Testing cannot prove the absence of defects (principle 1), removing defects is debugging, and improving processes is quality assurance.

Question 2 FL-1.1.2 (K2)

A tester runs a test and the order total is wrong. A developer then finds the wrong line of code and corrects it. Which statement is correct?

  1. A. Both the tester and the developer were debugging
  2. B. The tester was debugging and the developer was testing
  3. C. The tester was testing and the developer was debugging
  4. D. Both the tester and the developer were testing
Show answer

Answer: C. The tester was testing and the developer was debugging

The tester’s test triggered a failure, which is testing. Finding, analysing and removing the defect that caused it is debugging.

Question 3 FL-1.1.2 (K2)

A reviewer finds a wrong formula in a design document. Which debugging steps are needed?

  1. A. Reproduction, diagnosis and fixing
  2. B. Diagnosis and fixing only
  3. C. Only removing the defect
  4. D. None, because static testing defects are not fixed
Show answer

Answer: C. Only removing the defect

Static testing finds the defect directly and cannot cause a failure, so there is nothing to reproduce or diagnose. Debugging is just removing it.

Question 4 FL-1.2.2 (K1)

Which statement best describes the relation between testing and quality assurance?

  1. A. Testing is process-oriented and preventive; QA is product-oriented and corrective
  2. B. Testing is product-oriented and corrective; QA is process-oriented and preventive
  3. C. Testing and QA are the same activity with different names
  4. D. QA is done only by the test team; testing is everyone’s responsibility
Show answer

Answer: B. Testing is product-oriented and corrective; QA is process-oriented and preventive

Testing is a form of quality control focused on the product. QA focuses on processes, aims to prevent defects and is everyone’s responsibility.

Question 5 FL-1.2.3 (K2)

Under deadline pressure, a developer misreads a requirement and codes the wrong discount. Customers are later charged too much. What is the failure?

  1. A. The deadline pressure
  2. B. Misreading the requirement
  3. C. The wrong discount in the code
  4. D. Customers being charged too much
Show answer

Answer: D. Customers being charged too much

Deadline pressure is a root cause, misreading is the error, the wrong code is the defect, and the visible wrong behaviour in operation is the failure.

Question 6 FL-1.3.1 (K2)

Which testing principle is best illustrated by “most of the production incidents came from the payment module”?

  1. A. Tests wear out
  2. B. Defects cluster together
  3. C. Early testing saves time and money
  4. D. Testing is context dependent
Show answer

Answer: B. Defects cluster together

A small number of components usually contain most of the defects or cause most failures, which is the Pareto-style defect clustering principle.

Question 7 FL-1.3.1 (K2)

The same automated regression suite has passed for six months, yet customers keep reporting new defects. Which principle explains this?

  1. A. Exhaustive testing is impossible
  2. B. Absence-of-defects fallacy
  3. C. Tests wear out
  4. D. Testing shows the presence of defects
Show answer

Answer: C. Tests wear out

Repeating the same tests makes them less effective at finding new defects. The tests and test data need to be updated and new tests added.

Question 8 FL-1.4.1 (K2)

In which test activity are test conditions identified and prioritised?

  1. A. Test planning
  2. B. Test analysis
  3. C. Test design
  4. D. Test implementation
Show answer

Answer: B. Test analysis

Test analysis decides “what to test” by analysing the test basis and defining prioritised test conditions. Test design then decides “how to test”.

Question 9 FL-1.4.3 (K2)

Which work product is typically created during test implementation?

  1. A. Test completion report
  2. B. Risk register
  3. C. Test execution schedule
  4. D. Test conditions
Show answer

Answer: C. Test execution schedule

Test implementation produces test procedures, scripts, suites, test data and the test execution schedule. The completion report comes from test completion, the risk register from planning and test conditions from analysis.

Question 10 FL-1.4.4 (K2)

A requirement changes late in the project. Which benefit of traceability helps the team most?

  1. A. It reduces the number of test cases needed
  2. B. It shows which test cases are affected by the change
  3. C. It removes the need for regression testing
  4. D. It guarantees that all defects are found
Show answer

Answer: B. It shows which test cases are affected by the change

Traceability between the test basis and the testware supports impact analysis, so the team knows which tests to update and rerun.

Question 11 FL-1.4.5 (K2)

Which activity belongs mainly to the testing role rather than the test management role?

  1. A. Test planning
  2. B. Test monitoring and control
  3. C. Test design
  4. D. Test completion
Show answer

Answer: C. Test design

The testing role focuses on test analysis, design, implementation and execution. The test management role focuses on planning, monitoring, control and completion.

Question 12 FL-1.5.3 (K2)

Which is a drawback of independent testing?

  1. A. Independent testers have the same biases as the developers
  2. B. Developers may lose their sense of responsibility for quality
  3. C. Independent testers cannot challenge stakeholder assumptions
  4. D. Independence always slows down defect detection
Show answer

Answer: B. Developers may lose their sense of responsibility for quality

A listed drawback is that developers may feel quality is “the testers’ job”. Independent testers have different biases and can challenge assumptions, which are benefits.

Next: Chapter 2: Testing Throughout the SDLC, or follow the preparation guide study plan.

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.

ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Preparation Guide: Study Plan, K3 Practice and Exam Strategy

Passing the ISTQB Foundation Level exam is less about years of experience and more about knowing the syllabus the way the exam writers do. This guide shows you exactly what to study, in what order, and how to answer the tricky questions, with day-by-day plans you can follow.

ISTQB CTFL › Preparation guide and study plan Syllabus v4.0.1 · updated 3 Nov 2026

How the exam is written

Every exam question is mapped to one learning objective (LO) in the syllabus, and ISTQB fixes how many questions come from each chapter and at which knowledge level. That makes the exam predictable:

  • The syllabus is the only source. If your company, a blog or a video uses a term differently, the exam follows the syllabus and the ISTQB Glossary.
  • Keywords are K1-examinable. Every keyword listed at the start of a chapter can appear in a “which statement is true” question.
  • K3 questions are calculations or scenarios. There are exactly 8, all from chapters 4 and 5.
  • Wrong options are usually true statements about a different concept. You must know which concept a statement belongs to, not just whether it sounds right.
Chapter Questions Hours to plan Priority
1. Fundamentals of Testing 8 5 High
2. Testing Throughout the SDLC 6 3 Medium
3. Static Testing 4 2 Medium
4. Test Analysis and Design 11 8 Highest
5. Managing the Test Activities 9 6 Highest
6. Test Tools 2 1 Low
Sample papers and revision 40 7 Highest

Your study toolkit

  1. The official CTFL v4.0.1 syllabus (free PDF on istqb.org). Read it at least twice. It is about 60 pages of examinable text.
  2. Our chapter notes (links in the course menu), which explain each section in plain language with examples.
  3. The ISTQB Glossary for exact definitions. Look up every keyword you are not sure about.
  4. Our three sample papers plus official sample exams A to D. Do them timed, then study every explanation, including for the questions you got right.
  5. A one-page “formula sheet” you make yourself: EP and BVA rules, decision-table coverage, state-transition coverage, three-point estimation, the seven principles, review roles and review types.

4-week study plan (1 to 1.5 hours a day)

Day Task
1 Read the certification guide. Download the syllabus and glossary. Skim the syllabus once, end to end, without trying to memorise.
2-3 Chapter 1: test objectives, testing vs debugging, testing vs QA, error/defect/failure/root cause.
4 Chapter 1: the seven principles. Write one real-life example of each.
5 Chapter 1: test activities, testware, traceability, roles, skills, whole-team approach, independence. Do the chapter self-check.
6-7 Chapter 2: SDLC impact, good practices, TDD/ATDD/BDD, DevOps, shift left, retrospectives.
8 Chapter 2: test levels, test types, confirmation vs regression, maintenance testing. Self-check.
9 Chapter 3: static testing, review process, roles, review types, success factors. Self-check.
10 Revision day: chapters 1-3. Re-read the syllabus for those chapters.
11-12 Chapter 4: equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis. Solve at least 10 problems.
13 Chapter 4: decision tables. Build three tables from small business rules.
14 Chapter 4: state transition testing. Draw two state diagrams and count all three coverage types.
15 Chapter 4: statement and branch testing, value of white-box testing.
16 Chapter 4: error guessing, exploratory and checklist-based testing; user stories, acceptance criteria, ATDD. Self-check.
17-18 Chapter 5: test plan, tester in planning, entry/exit criteria, estimation (practise all four techniques), prioritization, test pyramid, testing quadrants.
19 Chapter 5: risk (likelihood, impact, project vs product risk, mitigation).
20 Chapter 5: metrics, reports, configuration management, defect report. Self-check.
21 Chapter 6 and a full read of the syllabus keywords lists. Update your formula sheet.
22 Sample paper 1, timed (60 minutes). Review every answer.
23 Re-study the LOs you got wrong.
24 Sample paper 2, timed. Review.
25 Official sample exam A, timed. Review the official answer explanations.
26 Sample paper 3 and official sample exam B, timed. Review.
27 Weak areas only, plus your formula sheet. Official sample exam C or D if time allows.
28 Light revision, read the keyword lists, sleep early. Exam day is next.

2-week fast-track plan (3 to 4 hours a day)

Day Task
1 Chapter 1 complete + self-check
2 Chapter 2 complete + self-check
3 Chapter 3 complete + revision of chapters 1-3
4 Chapter 4: EP, BVA, decision tables (with 15 practice problems)
5 Chapter 4: state transitions, white-box, experience-based, collaboration-based
6 Chapter 5: planning, estimation, prioritization, pyramid, quadrants
7 Chapter 5: risk, monitoring, reporting, configuration and defect management; chapter 6
8 Sample paper 1 (timed) and full review
9 Fix weak LOs; re-read the matching syllabus sections
10 Sample paper 2 + official sample exam A
11 Fix weak LOs
12 Sample paper 3 + official sample exam B
13 Official sample exam C or D; formula sheet; keyword lists
14 Light revision only
Are you ready?

Book the exam when you score 32 or more out of 40 (80%) on two different full papers you have not seen before. The real pass mark is 26, so this gives you a safety margin for nerves and unfamiliar wording.

The 8 K3 skills you must practise

These are the only “apply” learning objectives. Each is worth practising until you can do it in under 3 minutes.

1. Equivalence partitioning (FL-4.2.1)

A form accepts an age from 18 to 60 (whole numbers). Partitions: below 18 (invalid), 18 to 60 (valid), above 60 (invalid). One value from each partition gives 100% EP coverage with 3 test cases, for example 10, 35 and 75. Invalid partitions count as coverage items too.

2. Boundary value analysis (FL-4.2.2)

Same field. The boundary values are the minimum and maximum of every partition: 17, 18, 60 and 61.

  • 2-value BVA: each boundary value plus its closest neighbour in the adjacent partition. The set is {17, 18, 60, 61}, so 4 test values.
  • 3-value BVA: each boundary value plus both neighbours. For 17: 16, 17, 18. For 18: 17, 18, 19. For 60: 59, 60, 61. For 61: 60, 61, 62. Removing duplicates gives {16, 17, 18, 19, 59, 60, 61, 62}, so 8 test values.
Count from the definitions

ISTQB counts the boundaries of the invalid partitions too, and removes duplicate values. If a question asks for coverage, divide the values exercised by the total identified, exactly as the syllabus defines it.

3. Decision table testing (FL-4.2.3)

A shop gives free delivery if the customer is a member or the order is over ₹999, and an extra 5% discount only if the customer is a member and pays online. With three Boolean conditions there are 2 × 2 × 2 = 8 columns in the full table. Coverage items are the feasible columns, so 100% coverage needs 8 test cases (fewer only if columns are merged or infeasible).

4. State transition testing (FL-4.2.4)

A login screen has states Ready, Locked and Logged in. Learn the three coverage criteria:

  • All states coverage: every state visited at least once.
  • Valid transitions (0-switch) coverage: every valid transition exercised. Most common criterion.
  • All transitions coverage: every valid transition exercised and every invalid transition attempted, one invalid transition per test case.

Full valid-transitions coverage guarantees full all-states coverage, and all-transitions coverage guarantees both.

5. ATDD (FL-4.5.3)

Given a user story and its acceptance criteria, pick the test case that checks a criterion, with positive cases first, then negative and non-functional ones. Each test must be understandable by business stakeholders.

6. Estimation (FL-5.1.4)

Three-point estimation: E = (a + 4m + b) / 6 and SD = (b − a) / 6. Example: optimistic a = 4, most likely m = 6, pessimistic b = 14 person-days gives E = (4 + 24 + 14) / 6 = 7, SD = 10 / 6 ≈ 1.67, so 7 ± 1.67 person-days.

Ratio estimation: if a past project had a development-to-test ratio of 5:2 and the new development effort is 500 person-days, the test effort is 500 × 2 / 5 = 200 person-days.

7. Test case prioritization (FL-5.1.5)

Order by risk, coverage (or additional coverage) or requirement priority, but a test that another test depends on must run first, even if its own priority is lower. Exam questions almost always hide one dependency.

8. Defect report (FL-5.5.1)

Know what a good report contains: unique ID, title and short summary, date, author, test object and environment, context (test case, test activity, SDLC phase), description with steps to reproduce, expected and actual results, severity, priority, status, and references such as the test case. Questions ask which information is missing or which report is best.

How to read a question

  1. Read the last line first. It tells you what is asked: “BEST”, “MOST likely”, “NOT”, “FIRST”.
  2. Underline the qualifier. “Which is NOT a benefit of…” flips the logic. One missed “NOT” costs a mark.
  3. Name the concept. Before reading the options, say which LO the question tests. Then each option is either about that concept or a distractor about a neighbouring one.
  4. Eliminate absolutes. Options with “always”, “never”, “guarantees” or “proves” are usually wrong (“testing proves there are no defects” breaks principle 1).
  5. Choose the syllabus answer, not your company’s answer. If two options are both true in real life, pick the one the syllabus states.
  6. Show your working on K3 questions. Use the scratch paper or on-screen notes and write the partitions, boundaries or table columns before choosing.

Time management

You have 60 minutes for 40 questions. Aim for about 1 minute on K1 and K2 questions and 3 minutes on K3 questions. Answer every question on the first pass, flag the ones you are unsure about, and use the last 10 minutes to review flags. Never leave a question blank.

Common traps

Trap What the syllabus says
“Testing and debugging are the same” Testing finds failures or defects; debugging finds, analyses and removes their causes.
“QA and testing are the same” Testing is product-oriented and corrective (quality control); QA is process-oriented and preventive.
“Static testing causes failures” Static testing finds defects directly; it cannot cause failures because nothing is executed.
“Confirmation testing = regression testing” Confirmation checks a fix; regression checks that changes did not break anything else.
“100% statement coverage means 100% branch coverage” It is the other way round: branch coverage subsumes statement coverage.
“All states coverage is the strongest” It is the weakest of the three state-transition criteria.
“Independent testers are always better” Independence has drawbacks: isolation, lost developer responsibility, bottlenecks.
“Exit criteria are only about test coverage” They also include other measures of thoroughness (unresolved defects, defect density, failed tests) and yes/no criteria. Running out of time or budget can be a valid exit criterion if stakeholders accept the risk.
“Planning Poker is a separate technique” It is a variant of Wideband Delphi.

Exam-day checklist

  • A valid government photo ID that matches your registration name exactly.
  • For online exams: the Pearson VUE system test passed on the same computer and network, a quiet room, a clear desk, webcam and microphone working, other apps closed.
  • For test centres: arrive 30 minutes early.
  • Eat, hydrate and keep 5 minutes of slack in your schedule before check-in.
  • During the exam: answer everything, flag doubts, review flags at the end.

Practise the method

Question 1

A field accepts whole numbers from 1 to 100. Using 2-value boundary value analysis, how many test values are needed for 100% coverage?

  1. A. 2
  2. B. 4
  3. C. 6
  4. D. 8
Show answer

Answer: B. 4

Partitions are ≤0, 1 to 100, and ≥101. The boundary values are 0, 1, 100 and 101. In 2-value BVA each boundary value and its closest neighbour in the adjacent partition are covered, and these four values already include all the neighbours.

Question 2

Three-point estimates for a test task are a = 2, m = 5 and b = 14 days. What is the estimate E?

  1. A. 5 days
  2. B. 6 days
  3. C. 7 days
  4. D. 8 days
Show answer

Answer: B. 6 days

E = (2 + 4 × 5 + 14) / 6 = 36 / 6 = 6 days. The standard deviation is (14 − 2) / 6 = 2 days.

Question 3

Test T1 (priority 1) can only run after test T3 (priority 3) has created the test data. Which test runs first?

  1. A. T1, because it has the highest priority
  2. B. T3, because T1 depends on it
  3. C. Either, because priority decides the order
  4. D. Neither, until the dependency is removed
Show answer

Answer: B. T3, because T1 depends on it

The syllabus says that if a higher-priority test depends on a lower-priority one, the lower-priority test must be executed first.

This study material is written by SQA Tools and is based on the ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0.1 (© International Software Testing Qualifications Board and the syllabus authors). ISTQB® is a registered trademark of the International Software Testing Qualifications Board. This page is not affiliated with or endorsed by ISTQB. Always check the official CTFL page for the latest syllabus and exam rules.